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aivan3 [116]
3 years ago
12

Look at the graph. On a coordinate plane, a graph increases through (negative 1, 4), levels off at (0, negative 3), and then inc

reases up through (2, 5). Leslie analyzed the graph to determine if the function it represents is linear or non-linear. First she found three points on the graph to be (–1, –4), (0, -3), and (2, 5). Next, she determined the rate of change between the points (–1, –4) and (0, -3) to be StartFraction negative 3 minus (negative 4) Over 0 minus (negative 1) EndFraction = StartFraction 1 Over 1 EndFraction = 1. and the rate of change between the points (0, -3) and (2, 5) to be StartFraction 5 minus (negative 3) Over 2 minus 0 EndFraction = StartFraction 8 Over 2 EndFraction = 4. Finally, she concluded that since the rate of change is not constant, the function must be linear. Why is Leslie wrong? The points (–1, –4), (0, –3), and (2, 5) are not all on the graph. The expressions StartFraction negative 3 minus (negative 4) Over 0 minus (negative 1) EndFraction and StartFraction negative 3 minus (negative 5) Over 2 minus 0 EndFraction both equal 1. She miscalculated the rates of change. Her conclusion is wrong. If the rate of change is not constant, then the function cannot be linear.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Afina-wow [57]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Answer is A

explanation:

there is no point (0.-3) on the graph.

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Split up the integration interval into 4 subintervals:

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The left and right endpoints of the i-th subinterval, respectively, are

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We approximate the (signed) area under the curve over each subinterval by

T_i=\dfrac{f(\ell_i)+f(r_i)}2(\ell_i-r_i)

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We first interpolate the integrand over each subinterval by a quadratic polynomial p_i(x), where

p_i(x)=f(\ell_i)\dfrac{(x-m_i)(x-r_i)}{(\ell_i-m_i)(\ell_i-r_i)}+f(m)\dfrac{(x-\ell_i)(x-r_i)}{(m_i-\ell_i)(m_i-r_i)}+f(r_i)\dfrac{(x-\ell_i)(x-m_i)}{(r_i-\ell_i)(r_i-m_i)}

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\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4\int_{\ell_i}^{r_i}p_i(x)\,\mathrm dx

It so happens that the integral of p_i(x) reduces nicely to the form you're probably more familiar with,

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Then the integral is approximately

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4S_i\approx\boxed{3.000117}

Compare these to the actual value of the integral, 3. I've included plots of the approximations below.

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