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o-na [289]
3 years ago
12

All of the following reasons are legitimate potential disadvantages of using a market-based transfer price except Select one: A.

market price of intermediate goods and services can be difficult to determine. B. use of market price leads division managers to act in a manner that is inconsistent with corporate goals. C. substantially high selling expenses can lead companies to set an artificially high transfer price. D. market price can be misleading if it is controlled by one or two highly influential companies.
Business
2 answers:
bezimeni [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: The correct option is C

Explanation:

Market based transfer price is defined as that notional value at which goods and services are transferred between divisions in a decentralized organization. Transfer price are normally set for intermediate products which are goods and services that are supplied by the selling division to the buying division. Problems on transfer pricing arise between divisionalized organizations where profits or investment are created, when the division do business with one another. One of the condition that trigger market pricing is the existence of multiple facilities in more than one taxing jurisdiction. High selling expenses cannot lead companies to set an artificial high transfer price because it is difficult to shift resources from low priority to high priority when market based transfer pricing is fixed.

bearhunter [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: B. use of market price leads division managers to act in a manner that is inconsistent with corporate goals.

Explanation: Market-based transfer pricing is perhaps the easiest form of transfer pricing when it comes to determining the price that will be paid between divisions of the same company. It uses the normal market rate that would be paid if the goods were bought on the open market.

Transfer pricing helps in reducing duty costs by shipping goods into countries with high tariff rates at minimal transfer prices so that the duty base of such transactions is fairly low.

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evablogger [386]

Answer:

A royalty is a fee that the franchisee has to pay the franchiser for trading under its name.

Explanation:

A franchise operation is when one party (franchiser) allows another party (franchisee) access to it’s proprietary knowledge, trademark and processes in order to allow the party to sell a product or provide a service under the business’s name. A common example of a franchise operation are KFC outlets across the globe.

A royalty fee is a fee that the franchisee has to pay the franchiser on a common basis such as quarterly or annually for trading under its name. It is generally calculated as a percentage of gross sales. In this case the royalty fee would be 5% of gross sales.

4 0
3 years ago
In economics, we define the "long run" as a. About ten years b. The amount of time it takes for a factory to need new paint c. T
kari74 [83]

Answer:The answer is c

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is the first step in Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change?A) Create a new vision to direct th
forsale [732]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed.

Explanation:

American educator John Kotter (born in 1947) in his book "<em>Leading Change</em>" (2011) proposed an eight-step method to generate change within an organization. The first of them is to Create Urgency, where potential risks are identified, and scenarios that illustrate what might happen in the future are created. Also, honest discussions are carried out to offer diverse and compelling reasons of why the change is needed.

4 0
3 years ago
Keenan Industries has a bond outstanding with 15 years to maturity, an 8.25% nominal coupon, semiannual payments, and a $1,000 p
ycow [4]

Answer:

6.52%

Explanation:

For computing the nominal yield to call, first we have to find out the present value by applying the present value formula which is shown in the attachment below:

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 6.50% ÷ 2 = 3.25%

NPER = 15 years  × 2 = 30 years

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2  = $41.25

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the present value is $1,166.09

Now to determine the yield to call we use the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment below:

Present value = $1,166.09

Future value or Face value = $1,120

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2  = $41.25

NPER = 6 years × 2 = 12 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this, the bond nominal yield to call is

= 3.26% × 2 years

= 6.52%

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a characteristic of economic services:
9966 [12]

Answer:

useful

Explanation:

i got it from USA test prep

4 0
3 years ago
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