Help me solve this with explanation
1 answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
Please refer to the attachment
Since , we can rewrite the integral as
Now there is no ambiguity about the definition of f(t), because in each integral we are integrating a single part of its piecewise definition:
Both integrals are quite immediate: you only need to use the power rule
to get
Now we only need to evaluate the antiderivatives:
So, the final answer is 15.