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yarga [219]
2 years ago
12

The Tingey Company has 500 obsolete microcomputers that are carried in inventory at a total cost of $720,000. If these microcomp

uters are upgraded at a total cost of $100,000, they can be sold for a total of $160,000. As an alternative, the microcomputers can be sold in their present condition for $50,000. The sunk cost in this situation is: g
Business
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]2 years ago
6 0

Answer: $720000

Explanation:

Sunk cos simply refers to a coat which a company has already incurred and can't be recovered. They're not relevant to future decisions if the company has they already happened in the past.

In this case, the sink cost will be $720,000 which is the total cost of the obsolete microcomputers, Other coat such as $100,000, $160,000, and $50,000 are relevant cost.

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Which of the following is a likely reason that a company would move its facility from one location to another?
Finger [1]
A likely reason that a company would move its facility from one location to another is that they would like to access various modes of transportation, such as boats and/or railroad.
7 0
3 years ago
During 2021, its first year of operations, Pave Construction provides services on account of $152,000. By the end of 2021, cash
Softa [21]

Answer:

  • 1. Record the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts on December 31, 2021.

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 13.800  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 13.800

  • 2-a. Record the write-off of accounts receivable in 2022.

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 12.420  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 12.420

  • 2-b. Calculate the balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts at the end of 2022

Final Balance 2022  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 1.380

  • 3-a. Assume the same facts as above but assume actual write-offs in 2022 were $18,630. Record the write-off of accounts receivable in 2022.

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 18.630  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 18.630

  • 3-b. Assume the same facts as above but assume actual write-offs in 2022 were $18,630. Calculate the balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts at the end of 2022

Final Balance 2022  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 7.176

Explanation:

Initial Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 152.000

Cash collections on these accounts total $106,000  

Dr CASH $ 106.000  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 106.000

New Balance

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 46.000

Pave estimates that 30% of the uncollected accounts will be uncollectible.  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 13.800  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 13.800

 

FINAL BALANCE 2021  

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 46.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 13.800

In 2022, the company writes off uncollectible accounts of $12,420  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 12.420  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 12.420

Final Balance 2022  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 33.580  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 1.380

2-b. Calculate the balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts at the end of 2022    

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 10.074  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 10.074

a. Assume the same facts as above but assume actual write-offs in 2022 were $18,630.    

Record the write-off of accounts receivable in 2022.  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 18.630  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 18.630

3-b. Assume the same facts as above but assume actual write-offs in 2022 were $18,630.  

Calculate the balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts at the end of 2022  

Final Balance 2022  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 14.950  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 7.176

6 0
3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
2 years ago
The wealth of the owners of a corporation is represented by​ ________.
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

The answer is B. share value

6 0
2 years ago
Albinson Company paid $96,000 for a two-year insurance policy on October 1 and recorded the $96,000 as a debit to Prepaid Insura
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

Debit Insurance expense    $12,000

Credit Prepaid Insurance    $12,000

Explanation:

When insurance is paid in advance, the entries required are  

Debit Prepaid Insurance

Credit Cash account

As time elapses and the insurance expires,

Debit Insurance expense

Credit Prepaid Insurance

Monthly insurance expense

= 1/24 * $96,000

= $4,000

Between October 1 and December 31 is 3 months

Total insurance expense = 3 * $4,000

= $12,000

7 0
3 years ago
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