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3 years ago

Trigonometry to solve for missing angles or side

Mathematics

1 answer:

lutik1710 [3]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

take 55 degree as reference angle

using tan rule

tan 55=opposite/adjacent

1.42=37/x

x=37/1.42

x=26.05

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Why do we multiply the area of a face by the number 6 to find surface area?

jok3333 [9.3K]

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2 years ago

In the rectangle below, EI = 2x+6, FI = 5x-6, and m ZIFE = 49º.

Reil [10]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

which of the following is the equation of the line that passes though the point (-2,1) and has a slope of 4

Ierofanga [76]

An equation that goes through (-2, 1) and has a slope of 4 is y = 4x + 9.

You can find this by looking for the y-intercept (b) by using the slope (m), the point and slope intercept form. The work is below for you.

y = mx + b

1 = 4(-2) + b

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Now we can use that and the slope to create the equation y = 4x + 9

4 0

3 years ago

The prior probabilities for events A1 and A2 are P(A1) = 0.20 and P(A2) = 0.80. It is also known that P(A1 ∩ A2) = 0. Suppose P(

Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

(a) $A_1$ and $A_2$ are indeed mutually-exclusive.

(b) $\displaystyle P(A_1\; \cap \; B) = \frac{1}{20}$ , whereas $\displaystyle P(A_2\; \cap \; B) = \frac{1}{25}$ .

(d) $\displaystyle P(A_1 \; |\; B) \approx \frac{5}{9}$ , whereas $P(A_1 \; |\; B) = \displaystyle \frac{4}{9}$

Step-by-step explanation:

$P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0$ means that it is impossible for events $A_1$ and $A_2$ to happen at the same time. Therefore, event $A_1$ and $A_2$ are mutually-exclusive.

By the definition of conditional probability:

$\displaystyle P(B \; | \; A_1) = \frac{P(B \; \cap \; A_1)}{P(B)} = \frac{P(A_1 \; \cap \; B)}{P(B)}$ .

Rearrange to obtain:

$\displaystyle P(A_1 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_1) \cdot P(A_1) = 0.25 \times 0.20 = \frac{1}{20}$ .

Similarly:

$\displaystyle P(A_2 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_2) \cdot P(A_2) = 0.80 \times 0.05 = \frac{1}{25}$ .

Note that:

$\begin{aligned}P(A_1 \; \cup \; A_2) &= P(A_1) + P(A_2) - P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0.20 + 0.80 = 1\end{aligned}$ .

In other words, $A_1$ and $A_2$ are collectively-exhaustive. Since $A_1$ and $A_2$ are collectively-exhaustive and mutually-exclusive at the same time:

$\displaystyle P(B) = P(B \; \cap \; A_1) + P(B \; \cap \; A_2) = \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{9}{100}$ .

By Bayes' Theorem:

$\begin{aligned} P(A_1 \; |\; B) &= \frac{P(B \; | \; A_1) \cdot P(A_1)}{P(B)} \\ &= \frac{0.25 \times 0.20}{9/100} = \frac{0.05 \times 100}{9} = \frac{5}{9}\end{aligned}$ .

Similarly:

$\begin{aligned} P(A_2 \; |\; B) &= \frac{P(B \; | \; A_2) \cdot P(A_2)}{P(B)} \\ &= \frac{0.05 \times 0.80}{9/100} = \frac{0.04 \times 100}{9} = \frac{4}{9}\end{aligned}$ .

6 0

2 years ago

#10

amm1812

Answer:

There are 3 green marbles in the box.

Step-by-step explanation:

15% = 0.15

To figure out how much 15% of 21 is, you must multipl the decimal form of the percentage by the whole number. This will give you how much of that number that percentage is.

0.15 * 21 = 3.15

But you can't have 0.15 of a marble, so you must round as well.

3 green marbles in the box.

3 0

2 years ago