Answer:
no
Step-by-step explanation:
it was slower the way there and if he was going 40 it would have taken the same time to get there as it would have to go back
Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.
For each household, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it has at least one VCR, or it does not. The probability of a household having at least one VCR is independent of any other household, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- 14 households, hence
. - 0.535 probability of having at least one VCR, hence
.
The probability of <u>at least 6 and no more than 8</u> is:

In which:




Then:

0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377
it's simplified to T = 4.56 dawg
1) y = x
2) y = -(1/5)x + 4
3) y = -6x + 2
4) y = x + 2
5) y = (1/2)x + 2
6) y = -x + 4
7) y = -x + 1
8) y = (3/2)x + 2
9) y = -(3/2)x - 2
10) y = 2x - 1
Answer:
,
,
, 15/2, 7.5
Step-by-step explanation: This is a bit tricky because 15/2 is equal to 7.5 !!
√40 = 6.32455532
7 1/5 = 7.2
3√6 = 7.348469228
15/2 = 7.5
7.5 = 7.5