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MaRussiya [10]
3 years ago
7

On a map, New York and California are 19 cm apart. The map scale is 1 cm = 100 km. What is the actual distance between the two c

ities?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Assoli18 [71]3 years ago
4 0
1900kM away from each other :)
Cerrena [4.2K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1900 km.

Step-by-step explanation:

On the map, 1 cm represents 100 km and there are 19 cm. So multiply 19 by 100.

100 * 19 = 1900

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4 people share a gallon of tea they each get 1/8 of the gallon how much do each of them get?
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

2/8

Step-by-step explanation:

2/8 x 4 is 8. That means each person gets 2/8 of the gallon.

4 0
3 years ago
Transform the equation 3x + y = 5 into slope-intercept form.
marin [14]

Answer: y=-3x+5

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope-intercept form is y=mx+b. So to make your equation into slope-intercept form, simply subtract 3x from both sides, which results in y=-3x+5

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
15. What is the algebraic notation of a figure is Translated 8<br> units left and 2 units up?
sasho [114]

Answer:

Please check the explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

When a figure is translated with 8 units left and 2 units up, it means the translated figure can be obtained by subtracting 8 units from the x-axis and adding 2 units to the y-axis.

For example, if a point P(0, 0) is translated with 8 units left and 2 units up, the new position of the point will be:

(x, y) → (x-8, y+2)

P(0, 0) → P'(0-8, 0+2) = P'(-8, 2)

Thus, the new location of the image of point P will be: P'(-8, 2)

Therefore, option (a) is the correction answer.

<em>                                           </em><u><em>FOR QUESTION 16</em></u>

As the algebraic notation of a figure is Translated 2 units right and 5 units up.

Translating 'a' units right mean, we need to add 'a' units to the x-axis.

Thus, the rule will be:

(x, y) → (x+2, y+5)

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
Square of a standard normal: Warmup 1.0 point possible (graded, results hidden) What is the mean ????[????2] and variance ??????
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

E[X^2]= \frac{2!}{2^1 1!}= 1

Var(X^2)= 3-(1)^2 =2

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we can use the moment generating function for the normal model given by:

\phi(t) = E[e^{tX}]

And this function is very useful when the distribution analyzed have exponentials and we can write the generating moment function can be write like this:

\phi(t) = C \int_{R} e^{tx} e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}} dx = C \int_R e^{-\frac{x^2}{2} +tx} dx = e^{\frac{t^2}{2}} C \int_R e^{-\frac{(x-t)^2}{2}}dx

And we have that the moment generating function can be write like this:

\phi(t) = e^{\frac{t^2}{2}

And we can write this as an infinite series like this:

\phi(t)= 1 +(\frac{t^2}{2})+\frac{1}{2} (\frac{t^2}{2})^2 +....+\frac{1}{k!}(\frac{t^2}{2})^k+ ...

And since this series converges absolutely for all the possible values of tX as converges the series e^2, we can use this to write this expression:

E[e^{tX}]= E[1+ tX +\frac{1}{2} (tX)^2 +....+\frac{1}{n!}(tX)^n +....]

E[e^{tX}]= 1+ E[X]t +\frac{1}{2}E[X^2]t^2 +....+\frac{1}{n1}E[X^n] t^n+...

and we can use the property that the convergent power series can be equal only if they are equal term by term and then we have:

\frac{1}{(2k)!} E[X^{2k}] t^{2k}=\frac{1}{k!} (\frac{t^2}{2})^k =\frac{1}{2^k k!} t^{2k}

And then we have this:

E[X^{2k}]=\frac{(2k)!}{2^k k!}, k=0,1,2,...

And then we can find the E[X^2]

E[X^2]= \frac{2!}{2^1 1!}= 1

And we can find the variance like this :

Var(X^2) = E[X^4]-[E(X^2)]^2

And first we find:

E[X^4]= \frac{4!}{2^2 2!}= 3

And then the variance is given by:

Var(X^2)= 3-(1)^2 =2

7 0
3 years ago
Need help on this, if it’s right I’ll make it brainliest
Andrews [41]

Answer:

(0,2)/(4,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Im Pretty Sure That's Correct.

8 0
3 years ago
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