Answer:
c. a letter that falsely claims the writer represents a foreign bank.
Explanation:
A clearing house is a financial institution that should be created for exchanging the payments, securities, or transactions related to derivates. It stands between the two clearing firms. Its motive is to decrease the member risk that failed to honor the trade settlement liabilities
So the clearing house scam includes the victim that collect the letter in which there is false claims where the writer shows the foreign bank
Answer:
The answer is 235 days
Explanation:
Average collection period can also be called Days' outstanding period. And it is the number of days it takes a business to collect its money or receivables from the goods or services sold on credit.
Days' reveivables period or Average collection period = 365 days / reveivables turnover.
Receivables turnover = Sales/ average receivable
$9,800/$6,333
= 1.55
Average collection period=
365 days/1.55
=235 days
You divide his property by his tax. That makes 412,500 ÷ 5775 = 71.4285715286.
5775 is approx 71.4% of 412,500. The tax is approx 71.4%
To check this you multiply 71.4285714286 by 5775 which does get you 412,500
Each of the following, except one, is a condition that characterizes a perfectly competitive labor market. The exception is workers receive wages that are above their marginal revenue product (MRP).
In developing countries, labor markets play a central role in determining economic and social progress since employment status is one of the key determinants of exiting poverty. Ultimately, having a decent, well-paid, and secure job is the most sustainable path to increasing incomes and consumption levels.
That is, in the labor market, employers are willing to buy more hours of labor at lower wages than at higher wages. Although employers, who demand labor, prefer lower wages, workers, who supply that labor, prefer high wages.
Learn more about the labor market here brainly.com/question/25715806
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Answer:
b. If a firm's assets are growing at a positive rate, but its retained earnings are not increasing, then it would be impossible for the firm's AFN to be negative.
Explanation:
AFN represents Additional Funds Needed and that whenever a company plans for expansion it should have resources, generally these are borrowed from outside.
So when the firm is growing positively it have profits with it and simultaneously if there is no increase in retained earnings then it means the company is distributing such profits as dividends, and in that case there will be a positive balance of AFN as, the funds are still needed even in case of profits.
Thus, in no manner the balance of AFN will be negative in this instance.
