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meriva
3 years ago
8

Robert Gillman, an equity research analyst at Gillman Advisors, believes in efficient markets. He has been following the mining

industry for the past 10 years and needs to determine the constant growth rate that he should use while valuing Pan Asia Mining Co. Robert has the following information available: • Pan Asia Mining Co.’s stock (Ticker: PAMC) is trading at $15.00. • The company’s stock is expected to pay a year-end dividend of $0.72 that is expected to grow at a certain rate. • The stock’s expected rate of return is 7.20%. Based on the information just given, what will be Robert’s forecast of PAMC’s growth rate?
Business
2 answers:
slamgirl [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Growth rate = g = 7.152%

Explanation:

To calculate the Robert forecast of the PAMC's growth rate in the question, we are give the following values

Share market value(MV)=$15

The stock's expected rate of return(Ke)=7.2%

Dividend at end of the year (D)=$0.72

Using the this formula, we can find the growth rate by making g the subject of formula in this formula

MV=D1/(Ke-g)

Substituting the values we have

15 = 0.72/(7.2-g)

15(7.2-g) = 0.72

108 - 15g = 0.72

Rearranging and collecting like terms, we have

108 - 0.72 = 15g

107.28 = 15g

Making g the subject of formula by dividing both sides by 15 we have

g= 7.152%

taurus [48]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Growth rate 2.4%

Explanation:

MV=D1/(Ke-g)

Where MV=share market value=$15

D1=Dividend at year end=$.72

Ke=stock's expected rate of return=7.2%

By putting above values in formula, we get;

MV=D1/(Ke-g)

15=.72/(7.2%-g)

15*7.2%-15g=.72

1.08-15g=.72

.72-1.08=-15g

g= -.36/-15

g=2.4%

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Consider the following​ alternatives: i. $ 140 received in one year ii. $ 240 received in five years iii. $ 350 received in 10 y
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Ranking 10% interest rate:

1) 5 years

2) 10 years

3) 1 year

Raking 2% interest rate:

1) 10 years

2) 5 years

3) 1 year

Raking 18% interest rate:

1) 1 year

2) 5 years

3) 10 years

Explanation:

You have to apply to bring the amount of money to present value, according with the information, the formula is the next:

Present Value = Future Value/((1+ interest rate)^(n))

Where n is the number of years that you have to wait to receive the money.

You have to calculate every situation with the respective amount of time and interest rate, the result must be money. and when you get the 9 results, you have to compare every situation and chose the higher amount of money according to the interest rate, for example:

Present value = 140/ ((1+10%)^(1))=  127    

                       =  140/ ((1+10%)^(5))=   149    

                        =  140/ ((1+10%)^(5))=   135

So the answer for the first scenario with an interest rate of 10% is:  

Ranking 10% interest rate:

1) 5 years

2) 10 years

3) 1 year

5 0
4 years ago
Elroy Rocket is entering his senior year as an accounting major and has a number of options for his summer break. His options fo
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

$8,300

Explanation:

Calculation for what Elroy's incremental profit or loss would be if he chooses option 2 over option 1

Using this formula

Incremental Profit of option 2 over option 1= Profit from option 1 - Profit from option 2

Let plug in the formula

Incremental Profit of option 2 over option 1= ($3,600*3)-(3*$1,100 - $800)

Incremental Profit of option 2 over option 1= $10,800 - $2,500

Incremental Profit of option 2 over option 1= $8,300

Therefore Elroy's incremental profit or loss would be if he chooses option 2 over option 1 would be $8,300

4 0
3 years ago
The amount by which sales can drop before losses are incurred is the
ohaa [14]

Answer:

Margin of safety Amount by which sales can decrease before a loss is incurred.

8 0
3 years ago
Brief Exercise 12-06Flint Corporation owns a patent that has a carrying amount of $290,000. Flint expects future net cash flows
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

Debit Impairment loss account   $50,000

Credit Intangible asset account   $50,000

Being entries to recognize impairment loss on patent.

Explanation:

According to IAS 36, an asset is impaired when the carrying amount of the asset is more than the recoverable amount. The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value and the future net cash flow from the assets.

Given;

Carrying amount = $290,000

Expected future net cash flows from this patent = $240,000

Fair value of the patent = $133,000

The recoverable amount = $240,000 (as this is higher than the fair value)

Impairment is the difference between the carrying amount and the recoverable amount.

Impairment = $290,000 - $240,000

= $50,000

Entries required

Debit Impairment loss account   $50,000

Credit Intangible asset account   $50,000

Being entries to recognize impairment loss on patent.

7 0
3 years ago
A ball rolls across a floor with an acceleration of 0.100 m/s2 in a direction opposite to its velocity. The ball has a velocity
lilavasa [31]

Answer:

a. 4.15 m/s.

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Acceleration, a = -0.100 because it's in the opposite direction.

Final velocity = 4

Distance = 6

To find the initial velocity of the ball, we would use the third equation of motion;

V^{2} = U^{2} + 2aS

Where;

  • V represents the final velocity measured in meter per seconds.
  • U represents the initial velocity measured in meter per seconds.
  • a represents acceleration measured in meters per seconds square.
  • S represents the displacement measured in meters.

V^{2} = U^{2} + 2aS

Making U the subject, we have;

U^{2} = V^{2} - 2aS

Substituting into the equation, we have;

U^{2} = 4^{2} - 2*(-0.100)*(6)

U^{2} = 16 + 1.2

U^{2} = 17. 2

Taking the square root of both sides;

U = 4.147m/s ≈ 4.15m/s

Therefore, the initial speed of the ball is 4.15m/s.

7 0
3 years ago
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