Answer:
9.45z :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
- 
Step-by-step explanation:
Evaluate cosπ then inverse tan, that is
cosπ = - 1
(- 1) = - 
Answer:
1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
No because (0,1) isn't a solution for both equations. It is for the first one, but not the second.
please vote my answer brainliest. thanks!