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2 years ago

In an arithmetic sequence, a3=15 and a8=0. What is the value of a5?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nina [5.8K]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

a3=15 , n=3

a8=0, n=8

a5 = ?

an = a1+ (n-1)d

a3 = a1 + (3-1) d

a3=a1+2d

and a8 = a1 + (8-1 )d

a8= a1+ 7d

15 = a1 + 2 d-------1

0= a1 +7 d----------2

substacting eq 2 from eq 1

15= - 5d

- 5d = 15

divide by - 5

d = -3

putting the value of d in eq 1

15 = a1 + 7 (-3)

15 = a1 -21

adding 21 on both sides

a1-21+21= 15+21

a1 = 36

a5 = ?, n=5, d= -3, a1=36

a5 = 36 + (5-1) (-3)

= 36+(4)(-3)

= 36-12

= 24

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Fittoniya [83]

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3.∠DAC ≅ ∠BCA 3. Alternate interior Angles are Equal as AD || BC.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

AD ≅ BC and AD || BC

To Prove:

ABCD is a Parallelogram

Proof:

Alternate Interior Angles Theorem :

"When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal , the resulting alternate interior angles are congruent.

Here AD || BC and the transversal is AC

Statement Reasons

1. AD ≅ BC . 1. Given

2. AD || BC 2. Given

3.∠DAC ≅ ∠BCA 3. Alternate interior Angles are Equal as AD || BC.

Therefore the correct assembling is

3.∠DAC ≅ ∠BCA 3. Alternate interior Angles are Equal as AD || BC.

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2 years ago

Help Please! Find The Missing Sides Using Special Right Triangles.

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Choice 1

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2 years ago

You have a large jar that initially contains 30 red marbles and 20 blue marbles. We also have a large supply of extra marbles of

Dima020 [189]

Answer:

There is a 57.68% probability that this last marble is red.

There is a 20.78% probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Initially, there are 50 marbles, of which:

30 are red

20 are blue

Any time a red marble is drawn:

The marble is placed back, and another three red marbles are added

Any time a blue marble is drawn

The marble is placed back, and another five blue marbles are added.

The first three marbles can have the following combinations:

R - R - R

R - R - B

R - B - R

R - B - B

B - R - R

B - R - B

B - B - R

B - B - B

Now, for each case, we have to find the probability that the last marble is red. So

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} + P_{3} + P_{4} + P_{5} + P_{6} + P_{7} + P_{8}$

$P_{1}$ is the probability that we go R - R - R - R

There are 50 marbles, of which 30 are red. So, the probability of the first marble sorted being red is $\frac{30}{50} = \frac{3}{5}$ .

Now the red marble is returned to the bag, and another 3 red marbles are added.

Now there are 53 marbles, of which 33 are red. So, when the first marble sorted is red, the probability that the second is also red is $\frac{33}{53}$

Again, the red marble is returned to the bag, and another 3 red marbles are added

Now there are 56 marbles, of which 36 are red. So, in this sequence, the probability of the third marble sorted being red is $\frac{36}{56}$

Again, the red marble sorted is returned, and another 3 are added.

Now there are 59 marbles, of which 39 are red. So, in this sequence, the probability of the fourth marble sorted being red is $\frac{39}{59}$ . So

$P_{1} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{33}{53}*\frac{36}{56}*\frac{39}{59} = \frac{138996}{875560} = 0.1588$

$P_{2}$ is the probability that we go R - R - B - R

$P_{2} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{33}{53}*\frac{20}{56}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{905240} = 0.0788$

$P_{3}$ is the probability that we go R - B - R - R

$P_{3} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{20}{53}*\frac{33}{58}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{937570} = 0.076$

$P_{4}$ is the probability that we go R - B - B - R

$P_{4} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{20}{53}*\frac{25}{58}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{49500}{968310} = 0.0511$

$P_{5}$ is the probability that we go B - R - R - R

$P_{5} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{30}{55}*\frac{33}{58}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{972950} = 0.0733$

$P_{6}$ is the probability that we go B - R - B - R

$P_{6} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{30}{55}*\frac{25}{58}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{49500}{1004850} = 0.0493$

$P_{7}$ is the probability that we go B - B - R - R

$P_{7} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{825}{17325} = 0.0476$

$P_{8}$ is the probability that we go B - B - B - R

$P_{8} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{30}{65} = \frac{750}{17875} = 0.0419$

So, the probability that this last marble is red is:

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} + P_{3} + P_{4} + P_{5} + P_{6} + P_{7} + P_{8} = 0.1588 + 0.0788 + 0.076 + 0.0511 + 0.0733 + 0.0493 + 0.0476 + 0.0419 = 0.5768$

There is a 57.68% probability that this last marble is red.

What's the probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times?

$P = P_{1} + P_{2}$

$P_{1}$ is the probability that we go R-R-R-R. It is the same $P_{1}$ from the previous item(the last marble being red). So $P_{1} = 0.1588$

$P_{2}$ is the probability that we go B-B-B-B. It is almost the same as $P_{8}$ in the previous exercise. The lone difference is that for the last marble we want it to be blue. There are 65 marbles, 35 of which are blue.

$P_{2} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{35}{65} = \frac{875}{17875} = 0.0490$

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} = 0.1588 + 0.0490 = 0.2078$

There is a 20.78% probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times

3 0

2 years ago