Answer:
A hostile takeover with IDNIC corporation as the target company.
Explanation:
Since SKRAM is appealing directly to shareholders of IDNIC to acquire stocks of IDNIC corporation, it means they have a target of getting them to have a certain percentage of ownership in IDNIC because owning a stock in a company means having a percentage of ownership in that company.
This kind of appeal can be likened to trying to an aggressive push to make the shareholders take over the IDNIC corporation.
Answer:
See calculations below
Explanation:
With regards to the above we'll simply add back the given depreciation to the net profit for 2018
= Net income $1,090,000 + depreciation
$290,000
= $1,358,000
Cash flow for 201 is $1,358,000
Answer:
The answer is explained below
Explanation:
To begin with, the policies that the goverments decide to implement in their countries tend to influece in a huge way the companies decisions and therefore its actions as well. Therefore that as a company manager of an international business he needs to stay very updated about the government policies over the countries where his company works. Moreover, the manager will understand that if there is free trade in a country then there will be no problems for his company to start selling there and obtaining the maximum profits as possible and if there is protectionism then the company will have to deal with the policies that the government implemented there. And that is why that as an international business manager he should really care about the policies of the country's government and if there is free trade of protectionism.
I'd say D, striking out verbally or physically.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Debt = D ÷ (E + D)
= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)
= 0.4444
Now
Weight of equity = 1 - Debt
= 1 - 0.4444
= 0.5556
As per Dividend discount model
Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)
Cost of equity = 11%
Cost of debt
K = N
Let us assume the par value be $1,000
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N
k=1
K =25
$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25
k=1
YTM = 9
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 9 × (1 - 0.21)
= 7.11
WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)
= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556
= 9.27%
As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion
