We can write the sequence out more fully, as we can see each time it is divided by 6.
60, 60/6, 60/6^2, 60/6^3, and so on.
Therefore we know the sequence can be written as

You can think of this as a graph, i.e. y=60/6^(x-1)
As a result, as x tends to infinity, y tends to 0 (since it effectively becomes 60/infinity). Therefore the sequence
converges toward zero.
Answer:
y = ½x
Step-by-step explanation:
y = ½x
---------------
Let
b---> the original amount of blue balls in the bag
p---> the original amount of pink balls in the bag
we know that
b=8+p
p=5
so
b=8+5----> b=13
step 1
Find the total of balls originally in the bag
total =13+5-----> 18
step 2
find <span>the probability that a person will pick a blue ball first
</span>Find P(b)
P (b)=13/18
step 3
Find the probability that a person will pick a pink ball second <span>without replacement
the total of balls now is (18-1)-------> 17
P(p)=5/17
step 4
Find </span><span>the probability that a person will pick a blue ball first and then a pink ball without replacement
</span>(13/18)*(5/17)-----> (13*5)/(18*17)------> 65/306-----> 0.21
the answer is
0.21
Answer:
Actually it's A.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
$64.5745
Step-by-step explanation:
You had to do this:
9.99+11.99+11.99+21.00+21.00=75.97
x = 85
75.97 100 85*75.97=6457.45
100x=6457.45
6457.45/100= 64.5745