Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
B. 1/56
Explanation:
There are 8 different marbles. In the first draw, you have a one out of 8 chance of getting the red. In the second draw, there are 7 marbles remaining, so a one out of 7 chance of drawing a white marble. To find the total probability of drawing the red and then white marble, we multiply the probabilities if each draw.
(1/8)*(1/7)=1/56
Answer
LINEAR REGRESSION
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
905
Step-by-step explanation:
arithmetic sequence are in form
a(n)=a(0)+d(n-1)
a(0)=25
common difference: d=35-25=10
a(n)=25+10(n-1)
a(89)=25+10(88)=905
Remember x is x and f(x) is same thing as y.
f(5) = 4
It is same thing as saying, when x = 5, y aka f(x) should be 4. Aka the point (5,4)
Let’s look at D, if x =5 then f(x)=5? No, it should equal 4. So this is wrong. It is also not linear. So NOT D
Lets look at C, if x =5 then
1/5(5)+3 =
5/5 + 3 =
1+3 =
4
So, f(x) aka y = 4. Is this correct? Yes when x =5, y indeed should equal 4, but it is not linear. So NOT C
Lets look at B, if x=5 then,
2^5 -28 =
32 - 28 =
4
So, f(x) aka y = 4. Is this correct? Yes when x =5, y indeed should equal 4, AND it is linear SO THE ANSWER IS B
Check A too, it gets y=14 so thats wrong as it is not 4.
