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kenny6666 [7]
3 years ago
14

Simplify this expression (7)(2x-5)

Mathematics
1 answer:
ruslelena [56]3 years ago
6 0
14x-35 is answer I think
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Does nayone know the answer<br> 12z – 5z + 9z2
vichka [17]
The answer is 25z if you need to know how i can show you
5 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me on this Please
saul85 [17]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  11.6 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

As the page title tells you, the Pythagorean theorem must be applied more than once. As you know, it tells you the square of the hypotenuse is the sum of the squares of the two sides.

  AD² = ED² +EA²

  EA² = AD²-ED² = 7² -6² = 13

  EA = √13 ≈ 3.606

__

  CD² = ED² +EC²

  EC² = CD² -ED² = 10² -6² = 64

  EC = √64 = 8

__

The length of the horizontal diagonal is ...

  AC = EA +EC = 3.6 +8 = 11.6 . . . cm

6 0
3 years ago
Solve for x<br>8x - 20 4x + 32​
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation:

8x - 20 = 4x + 32​ ( F rule angles)

8x-4x=32+20

4x=52

x=52/4

x=13

7 0
2 years ago
I need the answer please I don't know it
Vlad1618 [11]
Basically the question is asking you for the area of the triangle.
The formula to find the area of a triangle is base x height divided by 2.
So in this case you would do 27 x 15.5 = 418.5
Now you divide by 2 (209.25)
So the answer is D. Hope this helps!!
6 0
3 years ago
Seventh grade &gt; EE.11 Probability of independent and dependent events NED
ella [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

each combination of 2 specific numbers has the same probability. there is no difference in probability between the individual numbers.

remember, a probability is always desired cases over all possible cases.

we have 4 different possible outcomes every time we spin the spinner.

to get a specific number has the probability of 1/4, because we want 1 specific outcome, and have in total 4 different possibilities.

now, we spin a second time. the probability to get a specific number is again 1/4.

but, if we consider both events to be connected, when we want to know the probability to get 2 specific numbers when spinning twice, we have to multiply the individual probabilities :

1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16

so, the probability to land first on a 5, and then secondly on a 2 is 1/16.

the same as for landing first on a 3, and then on a 5.

the same as for landing first on a 4, and then on a 4 (again).

that is because the individual spin results are independent. the result of the first spin does not impact in any way the result of the second spin (in contrary to e.g. pulling multiple cards without returning the previously pulled cards).

8 0
2 years ago
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