Answer:
Type I: 1.9%, Type II: 1.6%
Step-by-step explanation:
given null hypothesis
H0=the individual has not taken steroids.
type 1 error-falsely rejecting the null hypothesis
⇒ actually the null hypothesis is true⇒the individual has not taken steroids.
but we rejected it ⇒our prediction is the individual has taken steroids.
typr II error- not rejecting null hypothesis when it has to be rejected
⇒actually null hypothesis is false ⇒the individual has taken steroids.
but we didnt reject⇒the individual has not taken steroids.
let us denote
the individual has taken steroids by 1
the individual has not taken steroids.by 0
predicted
1 0
actual 1 98.4% 1.6%
0 1.9% 98.1%
so for type 1 error
actual-0
predicted-1
therefore from above table we can see that probability of Type I error is 1.9%=0.019
so for type II error
actual-1
predicted-0
therefore from above table we can see that probability of Type I error is 1.6%=0.016
Answer:
a). 6:51
b). 6:30 am
c). 34 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
a). Train leaves Westchester at 6:30.
From the arrival - departure table in column (2),
Arrival time of the train at middlewich = 6:51
b). Kate has to reach Southam before 9:00 am
Therefore, time of the latest train that she can catch to get to work on time is 6:30 am
By this train she can reach at 07:19 at Southam.
c). Duration of journey from Westchester to Eastwick = 06:34 - 06:00
= 00:34
≈ 34 minutes
Answer:
∫((cos(x)*dx)/(√(1+sin(x)))) = 2√(1 + sin(x)) + c.
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to solve this question, it is important to notice that the derivative of the expression (1 + sin(x)) is present in the numerator, which is cos(x). This means that the question can be solved using the u-substitution method.
Let u = 1 + sin(x).
This means du/dx = cos(x). This implies dx = du/cos(x).
Substitute u = 1 + sin(x) and dx = du/cos(x) in the integral.
∫((cos(x)*dx)/(√(1+sin(x)))) = ∫((cos(x)*du)/(cos(x)*√(u))) = ∫((du)/(√(u)))
= ∫(u^(-1/2) * du). Integrating:
(u^(-1/2+1))/(-1/2+1) + c = (u^(1/2))/(1/2) + c = 2u^(1/2) + c = 2√u + c.
Put u = 1 + sin(x). Therefore, 2√(1 + sin(x)) + c. Therefore:
∫((cos(x)*dx)/(√(1+sin(x)))) = 2√(1 + sin(x)) + c!!!
Answer:

<u>Circumference</u><u> </u><u>of </u><u>a </u><u>circle </u><u>is </u><u>given </u><u>by </u>
<u>
</u>
- Given - <u>Diameter</u><u> </u><u>of </u><u>circle </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>1</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>yards</u>

now ,
<u>substituting</u><u> </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>r </u><u>in </u><u>the </u><u>formula </u><u>of </u><u>circumference</u><u> </u><u>~</u>

hope helpful :D