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Andreyy89
3 years ago
12

2/5 how do I put this in to decimal by rounding to the nearest tenth

Mathematics
2 answers:
Crank3 years ago
8 0

Step-by-step explanation:

0.4

hope this helps. :)......

Arisa [49]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0.4

Step-by-step explanation:

2/5 is also written as 4/10

4/10 = 0.4

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Area=? I have tried as much as i could
exis [7]

Answer:

2308.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply and divide by 2

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
From a balloon 1106 feet high, the angle of depression to the
Leto [7]

Answer:the distance from the headquarters from a point on the ground directly below the balloon is

175 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The right angle triangle ABC formed is shown in the attached photo. C represents the position of the balloon.

A represents the position of the ranger headquarters.

x represents the distance from the headquarters from a point on the ground directly below the balloon.

1 minute = 0.0167 degrees

Converting 43' to degrees, it becomes 43 × 0.0167 = 0.7181

Angle A = 66 + 0.7181 = 66.7181 degrees.

We would apply trigonometric ratio

Tan # = opposite side/ adjacent side

# = 66.7181 degrees.

opposite side = 1106

Tan 66.7181 = 1106/x

6.324 = 1106/x

x = 1106/6.324

x = 175 feet

7 0
3 years ago
Christy draws 3 cards from the deck one at a time without replacement. What is the probability of selecting the cards in the ord
Inga [223]
Start with a deck of 52 cards. Draw 1 card. Probability of drawing a diamond first:

\dfrac{\binom{13}1}{\binom{52}1}

Now draw another single card from the deck, which now contains 51 cards. Probability of drawing a spade:

\dfrac{\binom{13}1}{\binom{51}1}

Draw 1 last card. The deck has 50 cards left, and 12 of these are diamonds. Probability of drawing a diamond:

\dfrac{\binom{12}1}{\binom{50}1}

So the probability of drawing a diamond, then a spade, then another diamond is

\dfrac{\binom{13}1}{\binom{52}1}\cdot\dfrac{\binom{13}1}{\binom{51}1}\cdot\dfrac{\binom{12}1}{\binom{50}1}=\dfrac{13}{850}
5 0
3 years ago
The time to failure (in hours) of fans in a personal computer can be modeled by an exponential distribution with l=0.0003
Dvinal [7]

Answer: 0.0497870 ; 0.87754

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

λ = 0.0003

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F(x) = 1 - e^-λx = 1 - e^-0.0003x ; x ≥ 0

a. What proportion of the fans will last at least 10,000 hours?

P(x ≥ 10000) = e^-0.0003(10000) = 0.0497870

b. What proportion of the fans will last at most 7000 hours?

P(x ≥ 7000) = 1 - p(x ≤ 7000) = 1 - e^-0.0003(7000)

1 - 0.12245642825 = 0.87754

3 0
3 years ago
Help with question 4 please
musickatia [10]

Answer:

dont know

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry

6 0
3 years ago
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