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ch4aika [34]
2 years ago
7

1)Which is the most accurate way to estimate 74% of 89?

Mathematics
2 answers:
V125BC [204]2 years ago
4 0
Are there answer choices?
djverab [1.8K]2 years ago
4 0

the answer is 0.89 X 74 = 65.86

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Find an equivalent expression to this: 3xy + 4x + 8 + ( -2 )​
Arlecino [84]
3xy + 4x -16 ...... I hope that helps .
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3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
Two pairs of jeans cost $75 before tax. If the total tax paid for the two pairs of jeans was $6, what is the percentage of tax?
Eddi Din [679]
Take the tax (6$) and divide it by the pretax(75$) and take that number and multiply it by 100 and you get your percentage (8%)
4 0
3 years ago
What is greater -5 1/2 or 6.5
Anton [14]

Answer:

6.5

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Money is borrowed at 9% simple interest after one year $1209.90 pays off the loan how much was originally borrowed
Kamila [148]

Answer:

10,881$

Step-by-step explanation:

time = 1 year

amount paid =  $1209.90

percent borrowed =  9%

therefore originally borrowed = $1209.90 X 9% X 1 year

  Hope is correct

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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