Answer:
The second option which 5 years to maturity exhibited a lower price of
$523.95
Explanation:
In order to ascertain the option with lower, it is important we determine the price of each investment based on the fact the price of an investment opportunity today is the present value of its future cash flow is the maturity value of $1000 in both cases:
a.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=4 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^4
PV=$596.25
b.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=5 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^5
PV= $523.95
Answer:
1. P = $156,560; Q = $203,440
2. P = $90,320; Q = 149,680
3. P = -$43,500; Q = $3,500
Explanation:
The explanation is given in images for each situation:
Answer and Explanation:
The classification is as follows:
a. Financing activity inflow of cash
b. INvesting activity outflow of cash
c. Investing activity inflow of cash
d. Financing activity outflow of cash
The inflow of cash shows the positive sign while on the other hand the outflow of cash shows the negative sign
And, the same should be relevant
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