1. Simplifying Equation Below please help!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

vichka [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: 0

Step-by-step explanation:

In this equation 0/y would equal 0, no matter what y is. 0/y means that there's 0 items out of y items (ex: substitute y with 2, it would be 0/2). Beginning with 1*0 (one times zero) the answer there would be 0. Since we already know that 0/y equals 0, the rest of the equation would be 0 - 0 which would equal to 0. Hope this explanation helps :)

solmaris [256]3 years ago

5 0

$\\ \sf\longmapsto 0-\dfrac{0}{y}$

$\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{0-0}{y}$

$\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{0}{y}$

$\\ \sf\longmapsto \infty$

$\\ \sf\longmapsto 0$

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dusya [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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The diameters of bolts produced by a certain machine are normally distributed with a mean of 0.35 inches and a standard deviatio

Fiesta28 [93]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Notice that the mean of 0.35 inches with a standard deviation of 0.01 gives you when you add (to the right of the distribution), exactly 0.36. Since you want to find the probability (or percentage) of the bolts that have diameter LARGER than 0.36 in, that means you want to estimate the area under the Normal distribution curve from 0.36 to the right). See attached image.

We can use the tables of Z distribution for that, or the standard normal tables:

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