Answer:
40π feet
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the diameter of a circle you can find the circumference much easily than the radius. To find circumference with diameter you would do π×d or in this case π*40 which would give you the answer 40π.
(0,0)(1,3)
slope (rate of change) = (3-0) / (1-0) = 3
Hey there!!
Equation given :
... 78 = -2 ( m + 3 ) + m
... 78 = -2m - 6 + m
... 78 = -m - 6
... 78 + 6 = -m
... 84 = -m
... m = -84
Hope my answer helps!!
We know that
A difference of two perfect squares (A² - B²) <span>can be factored into </span><span> (A+B) • (A-B)
</span> then
x ^4-4--------> (x²-2)*(x²+2)
(x²-2)--------> (x-√2)*(x+√2)
x1=+√2
x2=-√2
the other term
(x²+2)=0-> x²=-2-------------- x=(+-)√-2
i <span> is called the </span><span>imaginary unit. </span><span>It satisfies </span><span> i</span>²<span> =-1
</span><span>Both </span><span> i </span><span> and </span><span> -i </span><span> are the square roots of </span><span> -1
</span><span>√<span> -2 </span></span> =√<span> -1• 2 </span><span> = </span>√ -1 •√<span> 2 </span> =i • <span> √<span> 2 </span></span>
The equation has no real solutions. It has 2 imaginary, or complex solutions.
x3= 0 + √2<span> <span>i
</span></span>x4= 0 - √2<span> i </span>
the answer is
the values of x are
x1=+√2
x2=-√2
x3= 0 + √2 i
x4= 0 - √2 i
Answer:
{(0,-5), (1, -3), (2, -1), (3, 1)
Step-by-step explanation:
If you plug in 1 for x you get f(x)=2(1)-5 which equals 2-5=-3
You would repeat these steps just going up by one number every time
