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In-s [12.5K]
3 years ago
13

What is the slope of (0,-8) and (-4,9)​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Musya8 [376]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

m=-17/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope is equal to m= y-y/x-x

Therefore it will be 9-(-8)/-4-0

Margarita [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

\boxed {\boxed {\sf m= - \frac{17}{{4}}}}

Step-by-step explanation:

We are asked to find the slope of (0, -8) and (-4, 9). We use the following formula to calculate slope.

m= \frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

In this formula, (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) are the points given. We have the points (0, -8) and (-4,9). If we match the given value with the corresponding variable we see that:

  • x₁= 0
  • y₁= -8
  • x₂ = -4
  • y₂= 9

Substitute the values into the formula.

m= \frac{(9)- (-8)}{ (-4) -(0)}

Solve the numerator. Remember that 2 back to back negative signs become a positive sign.

  • (9)- (-8)= 9--8 = 9+8 = 17

m= \frac{17}{(-4)-(0)}}

Solve the denominator.

  • (-4)- (0) = -4-0= -4

m= \frac{17}{-4}

This fraction cannot be reduced, so -17/4 is the slope.

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Answer:

1/3n=12

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason why it is 1/3n=12, is because you know that the number in front of n is 1/3. By figuring that out, you have already ruled out 3n=12 and 3n=-12. Finally, you know that 12 is a positive number leaving you with 1/3n=12.

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Answer:

y=-7x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

slope =m

y intercept =b

y=mx+b

y=-7x+6

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He brought 7/12 lbs of meat .
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The number of loaves of bread baked is proportional to the amount of sugar used. The graph shows this relationship.
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Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
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