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Anni [7]
3 years ago
5

7. tina solved the problem 940 x 56 incorrectly. this is what she wrote 940 x 56 = 5,264

Mathematics
1 answer:
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution a forgot to multiply the 5 by 10 to make it 50

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Find the odds in favor of rolling the sum of 4 when rolling a pair of dice??
JulsSmile [24]
If i’m not wrong, I tink the probability is 8%, 3/36.
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3 years ago
Rebecca is three years younger than twice Anthony's age. Write an expression that represents the relationship of Rebecca's age i
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

X=2y-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Let Rebecca's age be x

Let Anthony's age be y

Twice Anthony =2y

Rebecca's age (x) to be 3 years younger than twice Anthony's =2y-3

So, it's x=2y-3

4 0
3 years ago
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
Order from least to greatest ---- -2.15 17/7 2.7 -2.105
9966 [12]
In order from least to greatest ---- -2.15, -2.105, 17/7, 2.7 
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3 years ago
The scale on a map of Virginia shows that 1 inch represents 30 miles. The actual distance from Richmond,VA, to Washington, D.C.
Lapatulllka [165]

It would be 3.2 inches.

5 0
3 years ago
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