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3 years ago

13

Equality refers to how the pie is divided and efficiency refers to the size of the economic pie

1 answer:

NeX [460]3 years ago

8 0

The answer is: <em><u>TRUE </u></em> Equality refers to how the pie is divided and efficiency refers to the size of the economic pie.

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To derive net domestic product (ndp) from gross domestic product (gdp), we must subtract ________________ from gdp.

Deffense [45]

To derive net domestic product (NDP) from gross domestic product (GDP), we must subtract depreciation from GDP.

Depreciation is the reduced value of an asset over time, wear and tear on the asset. Cars, machines, equipment are examples of items that depreciate over time.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Edison Corporation paid a dividend of $10 per share on its $100 par preferred stock and $4 per share on its $20 par common stock

stepan [7]

Answer:

The dividend yield is 5%

Explanation:

The amrket value of common stock is known and the dividend yield on the common stock will be calculated.

The dividend yeild is basically the dividend return that the stock is providing expresses as a percentage of its market price.

Thus, the formula for dividend yield is,

Dividend Yield = Dividend per share / market price per share

The dividend yield on Common stock = 4 / 80 = 0.05 or 5%

5 0

3 years ago

Genent%E2%80%8B Industries, Inc.%E2%80%8B (GII), developed standard costs for direct material and direct labor. In%E2%80%8B 2017

Sliva [168]

Answer:

Direct material price variance

= (Standard price - Actual price) x Actual quantity purchased

= ($10 - $7) x 1,300 pounds

= $3,900(F)

Explanation:

Direct material price variance is the difference between standard price and actual price multiplied by actual quantity purchased.

7 0

3 years ago

A company will pay a $2 per share dividend in 1 year. The dividend in 2 years will be $4 per share, and it is expected that divi

Savatey [412]

Answer:

(a) $ 46.43

(b) $ 50.00

Explanation:

In 1 year the dividend is:

D1 = $2

In 2 years, the dividend is:

D2 = $4

(a)

Now,

⇒ $D3=D2\times (1+g)$

$=4\times (1+4 \ percent)$

$=4.16$ ($)

In 2 years, the price will be:

⇒ $P2=\frac{D3}{(r-g)}$

$=\frac{4.16}{12 -14}$

$=52.00$ ($)

Today's price will be:

⇒ $P0=\frac{D1}{(r-g)}+\frac{D2+P2}{(1+r)^2}$

$=\frac{2}{1.12}+\frac{(4+52) }{1.12^2}$

$=46.43$ ($)

(b)

In 1 year, the price will be:

⇒ $P1=\frac{(D2+P2)}{(1+r)}$

$=\frac{4+52}{1.12}$

$=50.00$ ($)

5 0

3 years ago

During its first year of operations, Cupola Fan Corporation issued 43,000 of $1 par Class B shares for $450,000 on June 30, 2018

jasenka [17]

Answer:

cash 447,200 debit

common stock 43,000 credit

additional paid-in 404,200 credit

-- to record issuance of stocks --

dividends 94,600 debit

dividends payable 94,600 credit

-- to reocrd declaration of dividends --

dividends payable 94,600 debits

cash 94,600 credits

-- to record payment of cash dividends--

Explanation:

issuance of share:

43,000 x 1 = 43,000 common stock

cash procced 447,200 (450,000 - 2,800 flotation cost)

addition paid in 404,200 (difference between common stokc and procceds

dividends entries

dividends: 43,000 x 2.2 = 94,600 dividends

when declaringwe use a payable account

at payment date we write-off the payable and decrease cash.

4 0

4 years ago