Answer:
i think its a trick question
Step-by-step explanation:
theres no way theres a righr answer the 20$ on is always ahead
I think the answer to the expression would be D. (10 - 2) x 4 because (10 - 2) would be multiplied 4 times, which means it would be four times greater. I hope this made sense and also helped you in some way.
<span>A. 1040
1040 is the form that you can itemized deductions which is where you deduct charitable contributions.
</span>
We're looking for the two values being subtracted here. One of these values is easy to find:
<span>g(1) = ∫f(t)dt = 0</span><span>
since taking the integral over an interval of length 0 is 0.
The other value we find by taking a Left Riemann Sum, which means that we divide the interval [1,15] into the intervals listed above and find the area of rectangles over those regions:
</span><span>Each integral breaks down like so:
(3-1)*f(1)=4
(6-3)*f(3)=9
(10-6)*f(6)=16
(15-10)*f(10)=10.
So, the sum of all these integrals is 39, which means g(15)=39.
Then, g(15)-g(1)=39-0=39.
</span>
I hope my answer has come to your help. God bless and have a nice day ahead!