Answer:a
a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4
b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8
c) Vo/Vi = - 1000
Explanation:
a)
R1 = 17kΩ
for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0
sin we know Va≈Vb=0
so
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k
Vo/Vi = -3.4
║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4 ( negative sign phase inversion)
b)
R2 = 74kΩ
for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
so
(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ
Vo/Vi = - 14.8
║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8 ( negative sign phase inversion)
c)
Also for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1
(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0 ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )
so
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ
Vo/Vi = - 1000
║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000 ( negative sign phase inversion)
Answer:
of 5 lb/ft and a concentrated service live load at midspan. .... length = 12 feet) to support a uniformly distributed load. Taking ... w 7..'{ 'f.- ~ s-·. 344 ft-kip. Fy : s-o ks I. 299 ft-kip. Li.. ::::- I 2.. }-t-. 150 ft-kip ..... The concrete and reinforcing steel properties are ... Neglecting beam self-weight . and based only on the ...... JI : Lf, 2. l.. ;VI.
Explanation:
Answer:
Divide the difference in tax by the amount of income from the investment, and you'll get the economic marginal tax rate from investing. Most people refer to marginal tax rates as being identical to tax brackets.
hope this helps
have a good day :)
Explanation:
Answer:
15,000 psi
Explanation:
The solution / solving is attach below.
