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Romashka [77]
3 years ago
12

The table shows the admission prices for an amusement park. Which graph shows this function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
agasfer [191]3 years ago
4 0
Uuuu I’m going home to do go with homework and bath green green park and park in hall bath bath green green park and
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The walls of a storage building are built from stone. The stonework costs $5.50 per square foot. The building is 12 feet by 15 f
elixir [45]

Answer:$2,970 to build the storage building.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
V+5+9v-9 what’s the answer
Luda [366]

Answer:

-4+10v

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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An insurance company offers its policyholders a number of different premium payment options. For a randomly selected policyholde
n200080 [17]

Answer:

(a)

\begin{array}{cccccc}x & {1} & {3} & {4} & {6} & {12} \ \\ P(x) & {0.30} & {0.10} & {0.05} & {0.15} & {0.40} \ \end{array}

(b)

P(3 \le x \le 6) = 0.30

P(4 \le x)=0.60

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

F(x) = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}0& x

Solving (a): The pmf

This means that we list out the probability of each value of x.

To do this, we simply subtract the current probability value from the next.

So, we have:

\begin{array}{cccccc}x & {1} & {3} & {4} & {6} & {12} \ \\ P(x) & {0.30} & {0.10} & {0.05} & {0.15} & {0.40} \ \end{array}

The calculation is as follows:

0.30 - 0 = 0.30

0.40 - 0.30 = 0.10

0.45 - 0.40 = 0.05

0.60 - 0.45 = 0.15

1 - 0.60 = 0.40

The x values are gotten by considering where the equality sign is in each range.

1 \le x < 3 means x = 1

3 \le x < 4 means x = 3

4 \le x < 6 means x=4

6 \le x < 12 means x = 6

12 \le x means x = 12

Solving (b):

(i)\ P(3 \le x \le 6)

This is calculated as:

P(3 \le x \le 6) = F(6) - F(3-)

From the given function

F(6)= 0.60

F(3-) = F(1) = 0.30

So:

P(3 \le x \le 6) = 0.60 - 0.30

P(3 \le x \le 6) = 0.30

(ii)\ P(4 \le x)

This is calculated as:

P(4 \le x)=1 - F(4-)

P(4 \le x)=1 - F(3)

P(4 \le x)=1 - 0.40

P(4 \le x)=0.60

8 0
3 years ago
This is question please hlep me
Llana [10]
I think the answer is a btw hoped it helped
7 0
3 years ago
Use the "rule of 72" to estimate the doubling time (in years) for the interest rate, and then calculate it exactly. (Round your
bonufazy [111]

Answer:

Using the rule of 72, the doubling time is 9.35 years.

The exact answer is that the doubling time is 8.89 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

By the rule of 72, we have that the doubling time D is given by:

D = \frac{72}{Interest Rate}

The interest rate is in %.

In our exercise, the interest rate is 7.7%. So, by the rule of 72:

D = \frac{72}{7.7} = 9.35.

Exact answer:

The exact answer is going to be found using the compound interest formula(since the rule of 72 is a simplification of this formula).

The compound interest formula is given by:

A = P(1 + \frac{r}{n})^{nt}

Where A is the amount of money, P is the principal(the initial sum of money), r is the interest rate(as a decimal value), n is the number of times that interest is compounded per unit t and t is the time the money is invested or borrowed for.

So, for this exercise, we have:

We want to find the doubling time, that is, the time in which the amount is double the initial amount, double the principal.

A = 2P

r = 0.077

There are 52 weeks in a year, so n = 52

A = P(1 + \frac{r}{n})^{nt}

2P = P(1 + \frac{0.077}{52})^{52t}

2 = (1.0015)^{52t}

Now, we apply the following log propriety:

\log_{a} a^{n} = n

So:

\log_{1.0015}(1.0015)^{52t} = \log_{1.0015} 2

52t = 462.44

t = \frac{462.44}{52}

t = 8.89

The exact answer is that the doubling time is 8.89 years.

6 0
3 years ago
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