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Kaylis [27]
3 years ago
8

If you had a billion dollars and you spend one dollar every second how many years would it take you to spend it all

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alex777 [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Shrek

Step-by-step explanation:

You can brainlist the other guy now that this answer exists

trapecia [35]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 31.71 years

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to find how many seconds are in a day.

There are 24 hours in a day, 60 minutes in an hour, and 60 seconds in a minute.

There are 3,600 seconds in an hour. How did we find this? 60 (min) x 60 (sec)

There are 86,400 seconds in a day. 24 (hr) x 3,600 (sec)

Now we need to find how many seconds are in a year.

There are 365 days in a year, we can multiply that by 86,400.

365 x 86,400 = 31,536,000

Whew! Now that we have that out the way, we can now divide $1 billion by 31,536,000 seconds.

1,000,000,000/31,536,000 = 31.71 (rounded to the nearest hundredth)

If you had a billion dollars, it will take 31.71 years to spend one dollar every second.

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You give an 18% tip for a meal. What expression represents the total cost with tip?
vodomira [7]

Answer:

multiply the cost by 0.18 to get the tip amount or multiply the cost by 1.18 to get the total including tip.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Prove each of the following statements below using one of the proof techniques and state the proof strategy you use.
pochemuha

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Direct proof: Let m be an odd integer and n be an even integer. Then, there exist integers k,j such that m=2k+1 and n=2j. Then mn=(2k+1)(2j)=2r, where r=j(2k+1) is an integer. Thus, mn is even.

b) Proof by counterpositive: Suppose that m is not even and n is not even. Then m is odd and n is odd, that is, m=2k+1 and n=2j+1 for some integers k,j. Thus, mn=4kj+2k+2j+1=2(kj+k+j)+1=2r+1, where r=kj+k+j is an integer. Hence mn is odd, i.e, mn is not even. We have proven the counterpositive.

c) Proof by contradiction: suppose that rp is NOT irrational, then rp=m/n for some integers m,n, n≠. Since r is a non zero rational number, r=a/b for some non-zero integers a,b. Then p=rp/r=rp(b/a)=(m/n)(b/a)=mb/na. Now n,a are non zero integers, thus na is a non zero integer. Additionally, mb is an integer. Therefore p is rational which is contradicts that p is irrational. Hence np is irrational.

d) Proof by cases: We can verify this directly with all the possible orderings for a,b,c. There are six cases:

a≥b≥c, a≥c≥b, b≥a≥c, b≥c≥a, c≥b≥a, c≥a≥b

Writing the details for each one is a bit long. I will give you an example for one case: suppose that c≥b≥a then max(a, max(b,c))=max(a,c)=c. On the other hand, max(max(a, b),c)=max(b,c)=c, hence the statement is true in this case.

e) Direct proof: write a=m/n and b=p/q, with m,q integers and n,q nonnegative integers. Then ab=mp/nq. mp is an integer, and nq is a non negative integer. Hence ab is rational.

f) Direct proof. By part c), √2/n is irrational for all natural numbers n. Furthermore, a is rational, then a+√2/n is irrational. Take n large enough in such a way that b-a>√2/n (b-a>0 so it is possible). Then a+√2/n is between a and b.

g) Direct proof: write m+n=2k and n+p=2j for some integers k,j. Add these equations to get m+2n+p=2k+2j. Then m+p=2k+2j-2n=2(k+j-n)=2s for some integer s=k+j-n. Thus m+p is even.

7 0
2 years ago
(-3) x (-5) = ? please!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
seropon [69]
The answers 15 because we have two negatives it's always a positive and 3×5 is 15
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3 years ago
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Sloan [31]
B. 9 I think because it looks like it is bisected in the middle to cut into two equal parts. Please correct me if I am wrong. Thanks. 
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Will mark bianleast
Sauron [17]

Answer:

The mean is 7.975.

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
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