Answer:
The solution is ![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question
The function given is 
The indefinite integral is mathematically represented as
Now let 
=> 
=> 
So
![= \frac{1}{2} \frac{tan^{-1} [\frac{u}{5} ]}{5} + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%5Cfrac%7Btan%5E%7B-1%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bu%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%7D%7B5%7D%20%20%2B%20%20C)
Now substituting for u
Answer:
-1,0,2,-2,0 in that order
Step-by-step explanation:
(6x -9) + 5= 2
= -54 + 5
= 2
Answer:
The answer isn't in the options anyway I'll write it. the answer is 46.
Step-by-step explanation:
According to BODMAS rule - addition should be done first so
4+36= 40 and -3 +7 = 4 so 40+4 ,= 44
then we should do subtracting so, 10-8 = 2
to conclude we should bring the equation to an end so,
44+2 = 46
HOPE THIS HELPS YOU
Answer: option 2 is the better option
Step-by-step explanation: well in this case as you are trying to find the individual prices of the candy bars, you would divide the total price by the amount of candy bars. So in this case for the first problem, you would take the total price: $6.75 and divide it by 10. The answer to this would be .675 but you would round it up to .68 so that you have a two digit decimal. Therefore the answer is .68 cents for each candy bar.
you would repeat this process for the second problem. Total price: $7.25 divided by 12 (candy bars). The answer in this problem would then be .60 cents per candy bar. Once we see how much each would be, it is just a matter of seeing which price is higher. In this case, the second option is the better option.
Sorry this was long, that's how i explain things, but i hope this helps
