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Scrat [10]
3 years ago
14

What would 18^72+27(36)+36 be

Mathematics
2 answers:
nasty-shy [4]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: 18^72+1008

Step-by-step explanation:

Semmy [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

u can use a calculator

Step-by-step explanation:

use BODMAS rule

You might be interested in
(20 pts)
irakobra [83]

A function can be represented by equations and tables

  • 4 users are logged in by 9am
  • The domain is [3,23] and the range of the function is [3,4]

<h3>The number of users at 9am</h3>

The function is given as:

g(x) = \frac14 \sqrt{x - 3} + 3

At 9am, x = 9.

So, we have:

g(x) = \frac14 \sqrt{9 - 3} + 3

g(x) = \frac14 \sqrt{6} + 3

Simplify

g(9) = 3.6

Approximate

g(9) = 4

Hence, 4 users are logged in by 9am

<h3>The domain</h3>

Set the radical to 0

x - 3 = 0

Solve for x

x = 3

The maximum time after midnight is 23 hours.

So, the domain is [3,23]

<h3>The range</h3>

When x = 3, we have:

g(x) = \frac14 \sqrt{x - 3} + 3

g(3) = \frac 14 * \sqrt{3 - 3} + 3 = 3

When x = 23, we have:

g(23) = \frac 14 * \sqrt{23 - 3} + 3 = 4

So, the range of the function is [3,4]

Read more about domain and range at:

brainly.com/question/2264373

3 0
3 years ago
An expression to convert 50 miles per hour to miles per minute is shown. 50 miles Over 1 hour into 1 hour Over blank minutes
Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

\frac{50 miles}{1 hour} * \frac{1 hour}{60 minutes}

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 1 hour contains 60 minutes, So 1 hour would by divided by 60

So, the required expression is,

=> \frac{50 miles}{1 hour} * \frac{1 hour}{60 minutes}

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP I NEED HELP ASAP
Monica [59]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What is the greatest common factor of 49 and 84? a3 b4 c7 d9
Brilliant_brown [7]

Hi There!

Answer: c. 7

Why: 84 / 7 = 12 and 49 / 7 = 7

Hope This Helps :)

5 0
3 years ago
Please help! thanks so much​
Stels [109]

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can see that \lim_{x \to 2}  (f(x))= -1.

Thus, for the question, we can just plug -1 in:

\lim_{x \to 2} (\frac{x}{f(x)+1})=\frac{(2)}{-1+1}  =und.

Saying undefined (or unbounded) will be correct.

However, note that as x approaches 2, the values of y decrease in order to get to -1. In other words, f(x) will always be greater or equal to -1 (you can also see this from the graph). This means that as x approaches 2, f(x) will approach -.99 then -.999 then -.9999 until it reaches -1 and then go back up. What is important is that because of this, we can determine that:

\lim_{x \to 2} (\frac{x}{f(x)+1})=\frac{(2)}{-1+1}  = +\infty

This is because for the denominator, the +1 will always be greater than the f(x). This makes this increase towards positive infinity. Note that limits want the values of the function as it approaches it, not at it.

4 0
3 years ago
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