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Rudik [331]
3 years ago
15

Requirement 3. How much manufacturing overhead was incurred during the​ year? Is manufacturing overhead underallocated or overal

located at the end of the​ year? By how​ much? ​(

Business
1 answer:
hram777 [196]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

hello your question lacks the required data attached is the required data

answer : A) $513500,

      B) manufacturing overhead is under allocated by $57500

Explanation:

A) How much Manufacturing overhead was incurred during the year

= depreciation on manufacturing plants and equipment + property taxes on plant + plant janitors wages

= $485000 + $19000 + $9500 = $513500

B) Is manufacturing overhead under allocated or over allocated

to check if it is over allocated or under allocated we use this formula

= actual overheads - allocated overhead

= $513500 - $456000 =  $57500

therefore manufacturing overhead is under allocated by $57500

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On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
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Which of the following is a risk of investing in a privately held company, instead of a publicly held company?
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Private companies are not controlled b y the government and therefore there is a risk of shutting down as well, but Public companies are government owned companies

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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 2020, Hat Trick Manufacturing exchanged some equipment for a $750,000 zero-interest-bearing note due on January 1,
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Answer:

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Explanation:

First we solve for the present value of the note receivables at January 1st, 2021 As we are asked for the interest revenue on the 2021 incoem statment

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $750,000.00

time  2.00

rate  0.10000

\frac{750000}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV  

PV   619,834.7107

now, we calcualte the interest considering the 10% implicit interest

619,834.7107  x 0.10 = 61,198.47

This will be the interest revenu for the year 2021

4 0
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On January 1, 2021, Farmer Fabrication issued stock options for 100,000 shares to a division manager. The options have an estima
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1. The revised estimated amount of total compensation is

= 100,000 shares × $6

= $600,000

2. The action shows that the Farmer Fabrication cumulative effect for the year 2022 earnings            

3. The journal entries are shown below:

For the year 2022

Compensation expense

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(Being the compensation expense is recorded) $200,000

For recording this we debited the compensation expense as it increased the expenses and credited the paid in capital as it increased the stockholder equity

The computation is shown below:

= $600,000 ÷ 3 years

= $200,000

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