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Maslowich
3 years ago
14

Question:

Mathematics
1 answer:
blagie [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

See the explanation below:

  • <u>16% of the men (ages 20-29) are taller than 72.22 inches.</u>

Explanation:

The alleged conditions indicated in the comments section are wrong, because for a continuous distribution, like the normal distribution, the probability of an exact value is zero.

A real question, for this same statement is:

  • <em>Determine the percentage of 20 - 29 year old men taller than 72.22 inches.</em>

The empirical rule states tha, for a normal distribution,

  • 68% of data falls within the one standard deviation from the mean.
  • 95% falls within two standard deviations, and
  • 99.7% falls within three standard deviations.

Thus, for the heights of men (ages 20 - 29) in the United States:

  • 68% of men's heights are within 69.3 inches ± 2.92 inches, this is in the range 66.38 inches to 72.22 inches.
  • 95% of men's heights are within 69.3 inches ± 2×2.92 inches, this is in the range 63.46 inches to 75.14 inches
  • 99.7% of men's heights are within 69.3 inches ± 3×2.92, this is in the range 60.54 inches to 78.06 inches,

You may, then, determine <em>how many men are taller than 72.22 inches.</em>

72.22 inches is one standard deviation above the mean. Since the normal distibution is symmetric around the mean, you reason in this way:

  • 100% - 68% = 32% are either below or above one standard deviation from the mean
  • half ot that, i.e. 16% are below the mean and half are above the mean
  • thus, 16% are taller than 72.22 inches.
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