Answer: c. $94,240
Explanation:
On December 31, 2005, one payment has already been made which would mean that only 7 payments are left. As the first of these remaining 7 will be paid the year after, this is an ordinary annuity.
Note payable value = Present value of seven $20,000 payments
= 20,000 * Present value of ordinary annuity of 1 at 11% for 7 years.
= 20,000 * 4.712
= $94,240
<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
SC's Depreciable assets for the purpose of financial reporting and income taxes were $40000 and $33000 respectively. Its taxable income is$97000.Temporary difference will be there because of Depreciation.
Temporary Difference=Financial reporting Dep-Income tax depreciation
=40000 minus 33000
=7000
Pretax financial income=taxable income+Temporary Difference
=97000+7000=$104000
Deferred tax liability=7000 multiply 30%=2100
Income tax expense=104000 multiply 30%=31200
Income tax payable=97000 multiply 30%=29100
Dec 31 Income Tax ExpensenA/C Dr. $31200
To Income Tax Payable A/C $ 29100
To Deferred Tax Liability A/C $ 2100
<u>
Answer:b
</u>
Slatter Company
Partial Balance Sheet
December 31, 2013
Noncurrent Liabilities
Deferred Tax Liability $2100
Answer:
= $560,000
Explanation:
Given that:
- -Beginning PBO: 500,000
- -Current Service Cost: 50,000
- -Discount Rate: 6% => interest cost = 500,000*6% = 30,000
- -Contributions by Pernell: 40,000
- -Benefits paid to employees 25,000
- -Loss on PBO: 5,000
As we know that service cost; gains and losses; payments to retired employees; prior service cost; interest cost; payments to employees are factors that change the balance of the PBO
So the ending balance of the PBO will be:
Beginning PBO + Current Service Cost + Interest cost Loss on PBO -Benefits paid to employees
$500,000 + $50,000+ $30,000+$5,000-$25,000
= $560,000
Answer:
a) 12.87%
b) 11.03%
Explanation:
EBIT with no debt = $111,000
net income = $111,000 x (1 - 22%) = $86,580
total value of the firm with no debt = $86,580 / 12% = $721,500
value of the firm after debt is taken = $721,500 + ($165,000 x 22%) = $757,800
debt to equity ratio after debt is taken = $165,000 / ($757,800 - $165,000) = 27.834%
new cost of equity (Re) = 12% + [(12% - 8%) x 27.834% x (1 - 22%)] = 12.87%
WACC = (0.72166 x 12.87%) + (0.27834 x 8% x 0.78) = 9.288% + 1.737% = 11.025$ = 11.03%
Answer:
The answer here is false.
Explanation:
The answer is false.
This type of market is called perfect competition.
Products are identical. The buyers can buy from any seller without the fear of having different quality or quantity.
There are large number of buyers and sellers. The bargaining power of buyers is very high because sellers selling the same product are much.
These above-mentioned points made sellers to be powerless because any seller that increases its price will lose customers because buyers can get the same product else where at a lower price. Seller are price-takers, they can't influence the prevailing market price. It is the market that determines the price.
