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Flura [38]
2 years ago
9

Non opioiod pain relivers are mainly avaliable in ___.

Medicine
2 answers:
Lostsunrise [7]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

b

Explanation:

bla bla blaugug9otuvtuftuft7vy6vtuvtuvt7t76t8

marin [14]2 years ago
7 0
B
ahahahaha bahahahah
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3. A man spent 10 years as a laborer in the ship building industry where he was exposed to
ankoles [38]

Answer:

a

Explanation:

100 percent a

please mark brainliest

8 0
2 years ago
Georgia summers went into anaphylactic shock after drinking milk what is the main term
monitta

Answer: Anaphylactic shock is the state of unconsciousness after ingesting ones severe allergy. It causes swelling of the throat and does not allow oxygen to pass through.

7 0
3 years ago
27 year old g1p0 woman complains of modd swings and fatigue in the week prior to her menstrual period
Bumek [7]

Correct option is A, symptom diary for two months.

The premenstrual syndrome has a considerably more severe variant known as premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Women who are childbearing age may be impacted. It's a serious, long-lasting medical problem that need attention and care.

In certain cases, medications and lifestyle modifications might help control symptoms. PMDD's precise etiology is unknown. It can be a strange response to the regular hormone fluctuations brought on by the menstrual cycle. Further history gathering using a menstrual calendar identifies the cyclical pattern of PMS or PMDD symptoms and aids in determining the best course of treatment.

While dietary modifications could be beneficial, it's first crucial to make the diagnosis. There is no need for a mental evaluation or an anxiolytic medication.

Here is another question with an answer similar to this about premenstrual dysphoric disorder: brainly.com/question/14630878

#SPJ4

Question correction:

A 27-year-old G1P0 woman complains of mood swings and fatigue in the week prior to her menstrual period. These symptoms have worsened over the past six months. Some months the symptoms are so severe she misses several days of work. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable and a physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A. Symptom diary for two months

B. Dietary changes

C. Anxiolytic agent

D. Psychiatric consultation

E. Pelvic ultrasound

8 0
1 year ago
In acute HIV infection: the wide
oksano4ka [1.4K]
Three weeks

Hope this helps
5 0
3 years ago
A 65-year-old is seen by her cardiologist for preoperative evaluation for clearance for removal of her gallbladder due to gallst
harkovskaia [24]

The answer is Z01.810, K80.20, I10.

A 65-year-old woman is seen by her cardiologist for preoperative evaluation for clearance for gallbladder removal due to gallstones. Her hypertension is noted by the cardiologist. Her hypertension is managed with medication.Diagnosis codes are reported Z01.810, K80.20, I10.

What is Diagnosis codes?

  • The International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) is the official name for diagnosis codes such as the ICD-10-CM. These codes describe a person's illness or medical condition.
  • If you need to look up the ICD code for a specific diagnosis or confirm the meaning of an ICD code, go to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website and use their free searchable database of current ICD-10 codes.

To learn more about Diagnosis codes visit:

brainly.com/question/13193601

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
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