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loris [4]
3 years ago
8

Is this a function ?

Mathematics
2 answers:
lys-0071 [83]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes because for every x values there is only one y value, in other words they don't repeat

Step-by-step explanation:

Soloha48 [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

yeah it is non of the x values repeat

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Find tan a in the triangle
Vlad1618 [11]

\frac{21}{20}  Should be your answer

4 0
3 years ago
Describe how (2^3)(2^-4) can be simplified
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

Add the exponents and keep the bases the same. Then find the reciprocal and change the sign of the exponent

Step-by-step explanation:

When multiplying exponents with the same base number, you can add the powers. (If it was dividing, you would subtract the powers). You would then get 2^{-1}.

  • 2³ = 8,
  • 2² = 4,
  • 2^1 = 2,
  • 2^0 = 1

The pattern is to divide by 2. This means that 2^{-1} would be 1 ÷ 2 which is 1/2.

Tip: Any number to the power of -1 means to give its reciprocal.

Hope this helps!

5 0
3 years ago
How many solutions does this equation have? -6b = -7b - 5​
elixir [45]

Answer:

1 solution

Step-by-step explanation:

-6b = -7b -5

-6b +7b = -5

b = -5

8 0
3 years ago
DUE RIGHT NOWWWW!!! PLEASE HELP!!!!
melomori [17]

Answer:

Infinite Solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{2x + 6}{4}  =  \frac{1}{2} x +  \frac{3}{2}

Get rid of the denominators by multiplying all whole equation by 4.

( \frac{2x + 6}{ 4} )4 = ( \frac{x}{2} )4 +(  \frac{3}{2} )4 \\ 2x + 6 = 2x + 6

The interesting part is here. Both sides are same, meaning that if we continue to solve for the equation.

2x + 6 = 2x + 6 \\ 2x  - 2x = 6 - 6 \\ 0 = 0

The equation is indeed true. Meaning that both graphs are the same and intercept both each others infinitely.

Therefore the answer is Infinite solution.

4 0
3 years ago
Ggfdgfhkjljhvgtygjhcddfffdddddhh
topjm [15]

Answer:

Let us first jot down all the data given in the question;

Number of low quality computers (LQ) = 72

Number of medium quality computers (MQ) = 112

Number of high quality computers (HQ) = 711

∴ Total number of computers found in a random sample = 72 + 112 + 711 = 895.

∴ To find the probability of purchase for each category of computers, we use the following formula;

So,

P(LQ) = 72/895 = 0.08

P(MQ) = 112/895 = 0.125

P(HQ) = 711/895 = 0.794

Ans) Probability of purchase of  a low quality computer, a medium quality computer, and a high quality computer are 0.08, 0.125, and 0.794 respectively

A similar answer can be found here:-

https://www.brainly.com/question/7297949

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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