81.49 is the answer. Have a great day!
The second step is wrong. What should've been done is to find greatest common factor (gcf) of 1/6 and -2. This is because you cannont add together a number with a variable to a number without a variable. So get the variable by itself by subtracting 1/6 from both sides.
1/5x + 1/6 = -2
___— 1/6_— 1/6
____________
Turn -2 into a fraction and find the gcf of -2 and 6:
1/5x + 1/6 = -2
___— 1/6_— 1/6
____________
1/5x = -2/1 — 1/6 ——> 1/5x = -12/6 — 1/6
1/5x = -13/6
Then divide each side by 1/5 to get the variable by itself; remeber: when dividing a fraction by a fraction, you multiply by the reciprocal.
5/1 • 1/5x = -13/6 • 5/1
x = 65/6
Then, simplify
65/6} 10.83 or 10 83/100
Answer:
122
Step-by-step explanation:
If a number has an explanation point on the side of it, you should multiply all numbers that are equal to are less than that number.
Answer:
<h3>
The option B) is correct.</h3><h3>
That is the line that makes the sum of the squares of the vertical distances of the data points from the line (the sum of squared residuals) as small as possible is correct answer</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that " The least-squares regression line "
The least-squares regression line is <u>the line that makes the sum of the squares of the vertical distances of the data points from the line (the sum of squared residuals) as small as possible.</u>
Therefore option B) is correct
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Prime factorization requires dividing by primes starting with smallest prime number
402/2=201
201/3=67, 67 is prime so we cannot go further so the prime factorization of 402 is
2X3X67
