Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Try comparing your solution with the following:
Solution:
Answer:
Check:
![2[10-13(\frac{40}{17})]+9(\frac{40}{17})=-34(\frac{40}{17})+60\\-20=-20](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=2%5B10-13%28%5Cfrac%7B40%7D%7B17%7D%29%5D%2B9%28%5Cfrac%7B40%7D%7B17%7D%29%3D-34%28%5Cfrac%7B40%7D%7B17%7D%29%2B60%5C%5C-20%3D-20)
<em>Hope this was helpful.</em>
Answer:
94.50$
Step-by-step explanation:
you can only see values of 
Ranging from $-3$ to $3$ and they're included, so domain is $[-3,3]$
and $y$ values ranging from $-2$ to $4$ but $-2$ is not included so range is $(-2,4]$
