If you wanted to add up the total economic assets owned by a person or family minus all debts, you would be measuring wealth. Wealth is the total value of all valuable assets owned by an individual, community, business, or country. Wealth is calculated by deducting all debts from the total market value of all physical and intangible assets owned.
Wealth is the total value of all valuable assets owned by an individual, community, business, or country. Wealth is calculated by deducting all debts from the total market value of all physical and intangible assets owned. Wealth is essentially the accumulation of scarce resources.
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Answer:
process manufacturing
Explanation:
Process manufacturing is a type of manufacturing where certain recipes are used to create the end product. Process manufacturing is associated with the FMCG industry and pharmaceuticals mostly. It is contrasted with discrete manufacturing, where the end product is not in a bulk, like in process manufacturing.
Answer:
a.Operating Cycle = Inventory Conversion period + Days Sales Outstanding = 100 + 35 = 135 Days
Cash Conversion Cycle = Inventory Conversion period + Days Sales Outstanding - Days Payables Outstanding
= 100 + 35 - 11 = 124 Days
b.If Carraway were to decide to take full advantage of its credit terms and delay payment until the last possible date , their cash conversion cycle is 100 + 35 - 51 = 84 Days
c.Carraway should take its suppliers offer to finance its inventory with the interest free 35 Day loan
Answer: Direct foreign investment
Explanation:
The direct foreign investment is one of the investment process that helps in controlling the business ownership and in this the investment is basically create by one organization in some other country or location.
The economic development and the easy international trading are the main benefit of the direct foreign investment.
According to the given scenario, the Oldhust corporation is one of the electronic company that basically bought the other electronic firm in the other country and this example is refers as the direct foreign investment.
Therefore, Direct foreign investment is the correct answer.
Answer: Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Dividend in 2016 = $20,000
Preferred Shares = 400
Par Value of Preferred Stock = 400 × 10 = $4000
Rate of Dividend of Preferred Stock = 5%
(a) Dividend to preferred Shareholders:
= Par Value of Preferred Stock × Rate of Dividend
= $4000 × 5%
= $200
(b) Dividend to Common Shareholders:
= Total Dividend - Dividend to Preferred Shareholders
= $20,000 - $200
= $19,800
