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Hatshy [7]
3 years ago
13

Fiecare categorie.

Mathematics
1 answer:
adelina 88 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x  0 , VCB ln(1 4x2 ) tương đương với

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ice cream cost $0.85 per ounce. Which equation best represents y, the total cost of x ounces of ice cream.
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

I'm not sure about my answer but I think it is y=0.85x

Step-by-step explanation:

0.85 is the rate and the rate = the cost of ounces of ice cream which is why 0.85 has an x to it

5 0
3 years ago
Eve's puppy chewed 1/4 of his bone on Monday
Alexandra [31]
11/12
You have to find the common denominators
8 0
3 years ago
An icicle drips at a rate that can be represented by the function f(x) = −x2 + 11x − 18, where 0 ≤ x ≤ 10 and x is the number of
FrozenT [24]

Calculate f(x) for all numbers between 0 and 10:

f(0) = −0^2 + 11(0) − 18 = -18

f(1) = −1^2 + 11(1) − 18 = -8

f(2) = −2^2 + 11(2) − 18 = 0

f(3) = −3^2 + 11(3) − 18 = 6

f(4) = −4^2 + 11(4) − 18 = 10

f(5) = −5^2 + 11(5) − 18 = 12

f(6) = −6^2 + 11(6) − 18 = 12

f(7) = −7^2 + 11(7) − 18 = 10

f(8) = −8^2 + 11(8) − 18 = 6

f(9) = −9^2 + 11(9) − 18 = 0

f(10) = −10^2 + 11(10) − 18 = -8

When the value is negative it doesn't drip, so it starts and stops dripping when the values = 0

Which is f(2) and f(9), the values are 2 and 9.

4 0
3 years ago
Plssssss help me with this math pls
sdas [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the  probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king  of clubs) in a deck of cards, the  probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

4 0
4 years ago
(a^-3/b^2)^4 equivalent expression
Evgen [1.6K]

Given data:

The given expression is (a^-3/b^2)^4.

The given expression can be written as,

\begin{gathered} (\frac{a^{-3}}{b^2})^4=(\frac{1}{a^3b^2})^4 \\ =\frac{1}{a^{12}b^8} \end{gathered}

Thus, the given expression cann be written as 1/a^12 b^8)

6 0
1 year ago
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