Here is the answer if you can't read my writing than just ask. also if you have any questions about how I got something feel free to ask
The Answer is false.
the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse.Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.
Answer:
0 and 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Being able to write fractions in simplest form can make operations much easier. Also, to compare fractions, some may have to be in the simplest form.
