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Inessa [10]
3 years ago
5

What is the length of line segment EB? 42 units 50 units 65 units 73 units

Mathematics
2 answers:
nignag [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

likoan [24]3 years ago
3 0
It 42 units hopes this helps 
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Factor the algebraic expression. 7x+63
dexar [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

7x+63

= 7 (x +9)

Hope it helps ya

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP 30 POINTS
mote1985 [20]

Answer: Maggie is 29 years old

Step-by-step explanation:

12*3=36

36-7=29

29 + 12 = 41

5 0
3 years ago
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
Factor out the GCF use distibutive property to write an equivalent expression for 16a+20
AleksandrR [38]
4(4a+5) means the GCF would be 4

Video to help you: https://learnzillion.com/lesson_plans/4860-find-the-gcf-of-two-numbers-using-the-distributive-property
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How much would $300 invested at 6% interest compounded monthly be worth after 10 years?
Citrus2011 [14]

Answer:

$545.82

Step-by-step explanation:

Fomulas S=P(1+i)^n

given P=600

j=6%

m=12

t=10 yrs

find S=? Future value

i=j/m,   i=(6/100)/12

n=m x t, n= 12x10--> n=120

S=P(1+i)^n

S=300x(1+0.06/12)^120

S=$545.82

5 0
2 years ago
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