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Sphinxa [80]
2 years ago
9

Logb(x-1) + logb(x+2) = logb(8-2x)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleksandr [31]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

log_x(y)+log_x(z)=log_x(yz), so logb(x-1) + logb(x+2)=logb((x-1)(x+2)). next subtract logb(8-2x) from both sides to get logb((x-1)(x+2))-logb(8-2x)=0. log_x(y) - log_x(z) = log_x(y/z). so now we have logb((x-1)(x+2)/(8-2x)). now you can put it into exponential form: (x-1)(x+2)/(8-2x)=b^0=1 now just solve for x:

(x-1)(x+2)= 8-2x, x^2 + x -2 = 8-2x, x^2 + 3x -10 = 0, (x+5)(x-2)=0 x=-5, x=2. plug both into the original equation to check which one is correct, since log_x(y) can't have a negative y, x=-5 doesnt work

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BlackZzzverrR [31]
Answer:
See a solution process below:
Explanation:
Let's call the number of miles driven we are looking for
m
.
The the total cost of ownership for the first car model is:
12000
+
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m
The the total cost of ownership for the second car model is:
14000
+
0.08
m
We can equate these two expressions and solve for
m
to find after how many miles the total cost of ownership is the same:
12000
+
0.1
m
=
14000
+
0.08
m
Next, we can subtract
12000
and
0.08
m
from each side of the equation to isolate the
m
term while keeping the equation balanced:
−
12000
+
12000
+
0.1
m
−
0.08
m
=
−
12000
+
14000
+
0.08
m
−
0.08
m
0
+
(
0.1
−
0.08
)
m
=
2000
+
0
0.02
m
=
2000
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to solve for
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while keeping the equation balanced:
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m
0.02
=
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0.02
0.02
m
0.02
=
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After 100,000 miles the total cost of ownership of the two cars would be the same.
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