Answer:
The amount that Lena will invest in fund B would be $4000.
Explanation:
Given information -
Amount invested in fund A - $6000
Return earned on fund A - 6%
Let us assume amount invested in fund B be x
Return earned on fund B - 1%
Return on both funds together - 4%
Let us assume the total amount of fund invested be ($6000 + x)
Now using simple equation , we will take out the value of x which is the amount invested in fund B -
$6000 X 6% + x X 1% = 4% ( $6000 + x )
= $360 + .01 x = $240 + .04 x
= $360 - $240 = .04 x - .01 x
$120 = .03 x
x = $120 / .03
= $4000.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
the plan can change from buget sponsors and othere factors
Answer:
B) $114,000
Explanation:
To calculate the operating cash flows using the top down approach we can use the following equation:
operating cash flow = increase in total sales - increase in total expenses - increase in taxes paid
operating cash flow = $975,000 - $848,000 - ($154,000 - $141,000) = $975,000 - $848,000 - $13,000 = $114,000
I didn't include depreciation since it is normally included to calculate the increase in taxes but taxes were already given.
Answer:
After calculating, we get to know that the Product A should be sell now because, it show a difference of $23,800 through which company can earn more in the future. As the company will be better off by $23,800
Explanation:
For calculation, following things need to be considered which is shown below:
1. Product A process costing = Pounds × Per pound price
= 34,000 × $8
= $272,000
2. Product A costing after selling = Pounds × sale price per pound
= 34,000 × $14
= $476,000
3. Difference of costing :
= Product A costing after selling - Product A process costing
= $476,000 - $272,000
= $204,000
4. Invested amount = $227,800
5. Actual Difference = Invested amount - costing difference
= $227,800 - $204,000
= $23,800
After calculating, we get to know that the Product A should be sell now because, it show a difference of $23,800 through which company can earn more in the future. As the company will be better off by $23,800
Answer:
the present value is $4,316.35
Explanation:
The computation of the present value of given cash flows is shown below:
Present value is
= Cash flows at year 1 ÷ (1 + rate of interest) + Cash flows at year 2 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^2 + Cash flows at year 3 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^3 + Cash flows at year 4 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^4
= $880 ÷ 1.08 + $1,250 ÷ 1.08^2 + $1,510 ÷ 1.08^3 + $1,675 ÷ 1..08^4
= $4,316.35
Hence, the present value is $4,316.35
