Answer:
im not sure based off of research, but based off of experiance, either a or b.
Explanation: there would be a lot of build-up after more than that.
i apologize if i am incorrect
Answer: Given, the ball bearing market is purely competitive. Also at the current stage the firms in this market are earning positive economic profits.
Therefore , in the long run as adjustments occur in the industry, we can expect the market price of ball bearings to<em><u> </u></em><u><em>decrease and individual firms' profits to decrease.</em></u>
This will take place as new firms will enter the market once they analyze that the existing firms are earning positive economic profits. Thus this will lead to decrease in price of ball bearing and further will lead to decrease in profit os a firm.
<u><em></em></u>
<u><em>Therefore, the correct option is (d)</em></u>
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
The law of supply states that the higher the price, the higher the quantity supplied and the lower the price, the lower the quantity supplied.
Labor is resource in factor market. Factor market is a market where factor of production like capital, labor, land etc are sold and bought.
With an increase in minimum wage, many people will be willing to work. This means there is an increase in supply of labor which will lead to rightward shift in the supply of labor.
Answer:
$875
Explanation:
Generally, the relationship can be expressed as interest rate = Coupon Payment / Face Value.
Initially a 7% market rate a investor gets 7% which gives a coupon payment of $70 because the face value of 1000.
Hence 70/1000 = 7%
Subsequently with the interest rate change, we can look for the bond price.
Substitute 8% for the interest rate and find the revised bond value which will fall as rate increases
$70/bond price = 8%
Then $70/ bond price = 0.08
0.08 x bond price = $70
bond price = $70 / 0.08 = $875
Answer:
$368,000
Explanation:
In order to appraise the property using the capitalization approach, we must first determine a net cash flow:
net cash flow = $48,000 - $3,600 - $15,000 = $29,400
Now we calculate the property value using the perpetuity formula:
property value = net cash flow / capitalization rate = $29,400 / 8% = $367,500 which we must round up to $368,000
A property is being appraised using the income capitalization approach. Annually, it has an estimated gross income of $48,000, vacancy and credit losses of $3,600, and operating expenses of $15,000. Using a capitalization rate of 8%, what is the property's value (rounded up to the nearest $1,000)?
