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Bumek [7]
3 years ago
5

Joaquin has a grade of 81 and 70 on her first two algebra test if she wants an average of 73 what possible score can she get on

her last test
Mathematics
1 answer:
Anvisha [2.4K]3 years ago
4 0
81 + 70 + x = 3(73)
first multiply 3(73)

81 + 70 + x = 219
combine like terms

151 + x = 219
subtract 151 from both sides

x = 68

Joaquin needs to score a 68 on her next test to maintain an average of 73.
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ExtremeBDS [4]

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4 years ago
Please Help.<br> Match the reasons to the statements given.
marishachu [46]

Answer:

1. Given

2. Diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.

3. Vertical angles are equal.

4. Definition of parallelogram.

5. If lines parallel, then alternate interior angles are equal.

6. ASA

7. CPCTE

Step-by-step explanation:

Statement 1:

The first statement is a parallelogram ABCD, which is already given in the question. So, reason 1 is: Given.

Statement 2:

BT and TD are equal because for a parallelogram, its diagonal bisect each other. Here, BD and AC are the diagonals of parallelogram ABCD. So, the diagonals bisect each other at T. Hence, BT = TD

Statement 3:

Angles 1 and 2 is a pair of vertical angles. A pair of vertical angles are always equal to each other.

Statement 4:

A parallelogram is a quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel and equal. Hence, BC ||AD is because of the definition of a parallelogram.

Statement 5:

Angles 3 and 4 is a pair of alternate interior angles. If two lines are parallel, then the alternate interior angles are always equal.

Statement 6:

The triangles BET and DFT are now congruent because:

i.Angle- \angle1=\angle2

ii. Side - BT = TD

iii. Angle - \angle3=\angle4

Therefore, by ASA postulate the two triangles are congruent.

Statement 7:

As the two triangles are congruent, then their corresponding parts are also equal.

So, by CPCTE, ET=FT

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that 8,000 is placed in an account that pays 17% interest compounded each year assume that no withdraws are made from th
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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
There is a manhole cover with a radius of 1 foot. What is the manhole cover's diameter?
zhuklara [117]

Step-by-step explanation:

This seems like you just want to figure out the circumference of the manhole cover. The formula for the circumference of a circle is pi (3.14) multiplied by the diameter (d) of the circle so, circumference=πd. (π is the symbol for pi and approx. equals 3.14)

Circumference = πd

= 3.14(d)

= 3.14(3)

= 9.42 ft.

The length of the brass grip-strip will be 9.42 ft.

If the problem was stated in terms of the radius of the manhole cover then the formula would be circumference = 2πr which is the radius multiplied by 2 then multiplied by pi.

The radius of a circle is the distance from the center to the edge and the diameter is the distance from one edge of the circle to the other passing through the center of the circle.

Well, if the grip strip were of no width and could be straightened out to a line (which a piece of rubber cut in a circle couldn't be), then the length of the grip would correspond to the circumference of the manhole cover.

Circumference = 2*PI*radius = PI*diameter so your answer is 3*PI feet long.

6 0
3 years ago
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