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Papessa [141]
2 years ago
8

Is (x+1)^2 equivalent to x^2 + 1? explain

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mademuasel [1]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

No.

Step-by-step explanation:

(x+1)^2=(x+1)(x+1)=x^2+x+x+1=x^2+2x+1

This is different from x^2+1.

Thus, they are not equivalent.

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