Question

Need Help....

Answer 1

Answer:

$the \: expession \: is \: equivalent \: to \: 2$

$to \: know \: the \: solution \: with \: explanation$

$refer \: to \: the \: above \: attatchment$

Carry on learning !!

Answer 2

If 0 < x < π/2, then both sin(x) and cos(x) are positive.

From the Pythagorean identity, we then have

cos²(x) + sin²(x) = 1

⇒   cos(x) = + √(1 - sin²(x))   and   sin(x) = + √(1 - cos²(x))

Then

√(1 - cos²(x))/sin(x) = sin(x)/sin(x) = 1

and

√(1 - sin²(x))/cos(x) = cos(x)/cos(x) = 1

so that the overall expression reduces to

1 - 1 = 0