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Finger [1]
2 years ago
11

Using the computer output, what is the correlation

Mathematics
1 answer:
sineoko [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B = 0.547

Step-by-step explanation:

edge showed me how

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Help me answer this question!!!!!
zepelin [54]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let X be the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. The article "Methodo
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

a) P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.6288

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954=0.4335

b) P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452

c) P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

d) P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable that represent the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda=4)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda=4  , Var(X)=\lambda=2, Sd(X)=2

a. Compute both P(X≤4) and P(X<4).

P(X\leq 4)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)+P(X=4)

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^0}{0!}=e^{-4}=0.0183

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^1}{1!}=0.0733

P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^2}{2!}=0.1465

P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^3}{3!}=0.1954

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.9646

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.5311=0.7692

b. Compute P(4≤X≤ 8).

P(4\leq X\leq 8)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+ P(X=6)+P(X=7)+P(X=8)

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563

P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042

P(X=7)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^7}{7!}=0.0595

P(X=8)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^8}{8!}=0.0298

P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+ 0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452

c. Compute P(8≤ X).

P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

d. What is the probability that the number of anomalies exceeds its mean value by no more than one standard deviation?

The mean is 4 and the deviation is 2, so we want this probability

P(4\leq X \leq 6)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+P(X=6)

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563

P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042

P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559

4 0
3 years ago
Show that (x+1) is a factor of f(x)=19x^42+18x-1
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

If (x + 1) is a factor then f(- 1) = 0

f(- 1) = 19(-1)^{42} + 18(- 1) - 1 = 19 - 18 - 1 = 0

Thus (x + 1) is a factor of f(x)

6 0
2 years ago
HELP PLEASE
Stella [2.4K]

Answer:

The right answer is: 14,256 cubic inches

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, let's identify the dimensions of the tank and convert them to inches

Knowing that  1 Feet = 12 inches

So, the dimensions of the tank, expresed in inches will be:

Height (H): 2 ft. x 12 = 24 inches

Width (W): 1.50 ft. x 12 = 18 inches

Lenght (L): 3 ft. x 12 = 36 inches

Before calculating the volume of water inside the thank, We must consider that <em>there are two inches of empty space at the top.</em>

So , We must substract 2 inches to the height to calculate the volume.

Then, the height used for calculating the volume will be:

H'= 24 inches - 2 inches = 22 inches

Then,

Volume (V)= W x L x H'

V= (18 inches) x (36 inches) x (22 inches)

V= 14,256 cubic inches

8 0
3 years ago
How to solve 4(2x-7)-2×=-10 step by step
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer: x=3

Step-by-step explanation:

4(2x-7)-2x=-10

Multiply 4 with 2x and -7

8x-28-2x=-10

Add like terms which are 8x and -2x

6x-28=-10

Add 28 to both sides so the -28 cancels out

6x=18

Divide both sides by 6 to isolate the x

Answer= x=3

6 0
2 years ago
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