The expressions that are equivalent when m = 1 and m = 4 is;
Option B: 3m + 4 and m + 4 + 2m
We are given m = 1 and m =4;
A) 5m - 3 and 2m + 5 + m
B) 3m + 4 and m + 4 + 2m
C) 2m + 7 and 3m - 3 + m
D) 5m + 3 and 4m + 2 + 2m
For option B; 3m + 4 and m + 4 + 2m
Let's put m = 1
3(1) + 4 = 7
Also, 1 + 4 + 2(1) = 7
Similarly, let us put 4 for m to get;
3(4) + 4 = 16
Also, 4 + 4 + 2(4) = 16
In both cases, the expressions are equivalent and as such option B is the right one.
Read more about algebra simplifications at; brainly.com/question/4344214
The actual probability of having odd is 3/6=1/2
so no of odds theoretically is 250
but it is 325
so, experimental is higher than theoretical
so answer is B !
and you can go for that !
The value of the derivative of the function g(x) at x = 1 will be 1/3. Then the correct option is A.
<h3>What is an inverse function?</h3>
A function that may convert into another function is known as an inverse function or anti-function.
If the function is f(x) = sinx + 2x + 1.
Then the derivative of an inverse function g(x) of a function f(x) at a given value (a) will be
The derivative of f(x) will be
f'(x) = cos x + 2
Then the given value of a will be
a = 1
g(x) = f⁻¹(x)
put x = 0, then we have
f(0) = sin 0 + 2(0) + 1
f(0) = 1
Put x = 1, in the function f⁻¹(x). Then we have
f⁻¹(1) = 0
and
g(1) = 0
Then put a = 1, then we have
More about the inverse function link is given below.
brainly.com/question/2541698
#SPJ4
Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
Because 8 times 5 is 40, and if it is a triangle then it should be 20 because area as a triangle is base times height divided by two.
