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Mnenie [13.5K]
2 years ago
14

I need helpppppp please

Mathematics
1 answer:
IgorLugansk [536]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

C -1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

SLOPE IS THE GRADIENT OF THE LINE

THAT'S CHANGE IN Y OVER CHANGE IN X

-4-1/4--6

-5/10

=-1/2

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Find the equation of the line that passes through the given points. (1, 4.5) and (3, 6)
Zanzabum

Answer:

y=0.75x+3.75

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope is

\frac{6 - 4.5}{3 - 1}  =   \frac{3}{4}

Substituting into point-slope form,

y - 6 = 0.75(x - 3)

y - 6 = 0.75x - 2.25

y = 0.75x + 3.75

6 0
2 years ago
Help pls I need help pls
-Dominant- [34]
What are you supposed to do?
3 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
3 years ago
A vendor converts the weights on the packages she sends out from pounds to kilograms (1kg approximately equals 2.2 pounds).
Alexxx [7]

Answer:

a) b) the standard deviation and the mean is affected by the conversion factor as well

c)  the mean is displaced by b units

Step-by-step explanation:

for a new variable

Y=a*X  , where a= constant (conversion factor= 1 kg/2.2 pounds)

then

p(y)= p(a*X) = p(X)

a) mean =μ=E(Y)= ∑ a*X*p(y) = a ∑ X*p(x) = a* E(X)

mean =μ=a*μₓ

b) σ² = ∑ (Y-μ)²* p(y) =  ∑ (a*X-a μₓ)²* p(y) = a²*∑ (X-μₓ)²* p(x) = a²*σₓ²

then

standard deviation = σ= √σ²=√(a²*σₓ²) = a*σₓ

standard deviation = σ= a*σₓ

then the standard deviation and the mean is affected by the conversion factor as well

c) nevertheless for a displacement b

Y₂=X + b (b= constant= 50 gr)

p(Y₂)= p(X + b) = p(X)

then

mean =μ=∑ (X-b)*p(y)=∑ X*p(x)- b ∑ p(x) = E(X) -

mean =μ=μₓ - b

then the mean is displaced by b units

7 0
3 years ago
Common denominator between six and 44
Scilla [17]

The Least Common Multiple of 6 and 44 is 132.

4 0
3 years ago
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