Answer:
If the demand curve for a life-saving medicine is perfectly inelastic, then a reduction in supply will cause the equilibrium price to <u>rise and the equilibrium quantity to stay the same</u>.
Explanation:
Perfectly inelastic demand curve indicates the quantity demanded for the life-saving medicine remains the same or does not change in response to a change in price.
Since a part of the law of supply states that the lower the quantity supplied, the higher the price; a reduction in the supply of the life-saving medicine will increase its price.
The combining effect of the two above will lead to an increase in the equilibrium price while the equilibrium quantity will remain the same as it will not respond to the change in price.
The attached graph explains this more clearly. In the graph, the demand curve DD is used to represent the perfectly inelastic demand curve for the life-saving medicine. Therefore, the quantity remains at q no matter the changes, either increase or decrease, in price. Movement from the supply curve S1 to S2 indicates a reduction in supply of the life-saving medicine which causes an increase in the equilibrium price from Po to P1 while the equilibrium quantity stays at q.
This therefore shows that if the demand curve for a life-saving medicine is perfectly inelastic, then a reduction in supply will cause the equilibrium price to <u>rise and the equilibrium quantity to stay the same</u>.
Answer:
Current Yield = 0.05882 or 5.882% rounded off to 5.88%
Explanation:
A current yield refers to the annual return that a security provides based on the interest or dividend payments it makes expressed as a percentage of it current price. Thus, the current yield on preferred stock can be calculated as follow,
Current Yield - Preferred stock = Dividend per year / Current price
Dividend per year = 100 * 0.06 = $6 per year
Current Yield = 6 / 102
Current Yield = 0.05882 or 5.882% rounded off to 5.88%
Answer: The correct answer is " b. variables measured in terms of money but not variables measured in terms of quantities or relative price".
Explanation: According to classical macroeconomic theory, changes in the money supply affect variables measured in terms of money but not variables measured in terms of quantities or relative price.
Answer:
Option B It presents variable cost as a slope coefficient
Explanation:
The reason is that the total cost function is:
Y = a + bx
The total cost in this case is Y, a is fixed cost as an intercept, b is variable cost represented as an slope and coefficient and x is level of activity which is independent of Y.
So the right answer is option B.
Answer:
We can't define the firm's net income without additional information as either (1) or (2):
1) Revenues/ all income, and all expenses
2) Operating cash-flow together with interest expense, and tax rate
Explanation:
If we can have the operating cash-flow, then we can define EBIT (profit/ earnings before tax and interest) as below:
Operating cash-flow = EBIT + depreciation - increase of accounts receivable and inventories + increase of accounts payable.
Assuming Operating cash-flow is $100,000 then we have:
EBIT = $100,000 + $64,000 - $85,000 + $14,000 = $93,000
Assuming the firm have no interest expense and tax rate is 35%, then net profit = EBIT*(1- tax rate) = $93,000 * (1-35%) = $60,450
